Personality inventories are designed to assess several ________ at once

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Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1.

Psychologists define learning as the process of

A)

adapting to the environment.

B)

responding to external stimuli.

C)

reinforcing behavioral responses.

D)

acquiring new information or relatively enduring behaviors.

2.

Conditioning is the process of

A)

discrimination.

B)

spontaneous recovery.

C)

learning associations.

D)

observational learning.

3.

In classical conditioning a stimulus is any event or situation that

A)

triggers imitation.

B)

signals a reinforcer.

C)

elicits operant behavior.

D)

evokes a response.

4.

After one chimpanzee sees a second chimp open a box that contains a food reward, the first animal opens a similar box with great speed. This best illustrates

A)

shaping.

B)

spontaneous recovery.

C)

respondent behavior.

D)

observational learning.

5.

Which of the following is an unconditioned response?

A)

playing jump rope

B)

running through a maze to get a food reward

C)

sweating in hot weather

D)

clapping after a thrilling concert performance

6.

A dog salivates to the sound of a tone because the tone has regularly been associated with the delivery of food. In this case, the tone is called a(n)

A)

unconditioned stimulus.

B)

primary reinforcer.

C)

conditioned stimulus.

D)

immediate reinforcer.

7.

Extinction occurs when a ________ is no longer paired with a ________.

A)

UR; CR

B)

CS; UR

C)

US; UR

D)

CS; US

8.

In classical conditioning, generalization refers to the tendency for the conditioned response to be evoked by stimuli that are similar to the

A)

unconditioned stimulus.

B)

primary reinforcer.

C)

conditioned stimulus.

D)

conditioned reinforcer.

9.

An event that strengthens the behavior it follows is a(n)

A)

conditioned stimulus.

B)

unconditioned stimulus.

C)

reinforcement.

D)

operant behavior.

10.

Any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n)

A)

conditioned stimulus.

B)

unconditioned stimulus.

C)

positive reinforcer.

D)

negative reinforcer.

11.

Any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response is called a(n)

A)

conditioned stimulus.

B)

unconditioned stimulus.

C)

positive reinforcer.

D)

negative reinforcer.

12.

Purchasing state lottery tickets is reinforced with monetary winnings on a ________ schedule.

A)

fixed-interval

B)

variable-interval

C)

fixed-ratio

D)

variable-ratio

13.

A child who is punished for swearing at home but reinforced for swearing on the school playground is most likely to demonstrate a patterned habit of swearing that is indicative of

A)

negative reinforcement.

B)

instinctive drift.

C)

discrimination.

D)

extinction.

14.

Skinner is to shaping as Bandura is to

A)

punishing.

B)

discriminating.

C)

modeling.

D)

generalizing.

15.

Correlational studies show that prolonged viewing of televised violence ________ increased rates of violent behavior.

A)

inhibits

B)

causes

C)

is unrelated to

D)

predicts

16.

Experts would most likely agree that intelligence is a(n)

A)

inborn ability to perform well on standard intelligence tests.

B)

mental ability to learn from experience.

C)

general trait that underlies success on nearly any task.

D)

multiple array of completely independent adaptive traits.

17.

People with savant syndrome are best described as those who demonstrate

A)

high levels of emotional intelligence.

B)

difficulty remembering past experiences.

C)

an exceptional specific skill.

D)

a lack of numerical ability.

18.

An important aspect of social intelligence is called

A)

the g factor.

B)

analytical intelligence.

C)

hybrid vigor.

D)

emotional intelligence.

19.

Binet and Simon designed a test of intellectual abilities in order to

A)

provide a quantitative estimate of inherited intellectual potential.

B)

distinguish between academic and practical intelligence.

C)

identify children likely to have difficulty learning in regular school classes.

D)

assess general capacity for goal-directed adaptive behavior.

20.

The eugenics movement would have been most likely to encourage

A)

selective breeding of highly intelligent people.

B)

creation of special education programs for intellectually inferior children.

C)

construction of culturally and racially unbiased tests of intelligence.

D)

use of factor analysis for identification of various types of intelligence.

21.

Achievement tests are designed to

A)

measure the desire and potential capacity to successfully meet challenges.

B)

assess ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.

C)

compare an individual's personality with those of highly successful people.

D)

assess learned knowledge or skills.

22.

Aptitude tests are to ________ as achievement tests are to ________.

A)

current interests; past competence

B)

past competence; current interests

C)

current competence; future performance

D)

future performance; current competence

23.

An IQ of approximately 70 or below and difficulty adapting to the normal demands of life is most clearly an indication of

A)

savant syndrome.

B)

divergent thinking.

C)

convergent thinking.

D)

an intellectual disability.

24.

An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting is his or her

A)

self-esteem.

B)

personality.

C)

reality principle.

D)

hierarchy of needs.

25.

The importance of unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences is of most central importance to

A)

humanistic theories.

B)

psychodynamic theories.

C)

social-cognitive theories.

D)

trait theories.

26.

Psychoanalysis refers to the personality theory and therapeutic practices developed by

A)

Carl Rogers.

B)

Gordon Allport.

C)

Sigmund Freud.

D)

Albert Bandura.

27.

According to Freud, the unconscious is

A)

the part of personality that cannot process information.

B)

the thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories, of which we are largely unaware.

C)

a set of universal concepts acquired by all humans from our common past.

D)

a reservoir of deeply repressed memories that does not affect behavior.

28.

According to Freud, the part of personality that represents our sense of right and wrong and our ideal standards is the

A)

Oedipus complex.

B)

ego.

C)

id.

D)

superego.

29.

Freud suggested that defense mechanisms protect an individual from

A)

anxiety.

B)

self-serving bias.

C)

self-transcendence.

D)

unconditional positive regard.

30.

According to Freud, defense mechanisms are used by the

A)

id to defend against the accusations and guilt feelings produced by the superego.

B)

ego to prevent threatening impulses from being consciously recognized.

C)

superego to prevent expression of sexual and aggressive drives.

D)

id, ego, and superego in a repetitive sequence of internal conflicts.

31.

Repression refers to the defense mechanism by which people

A)

offer self-justifying explanations in place of the real but threatening unconscious reasons for action.

B)

retreat to behavior patterns characteristic of a more infantile stage of development.

C)

disguise threatening impulses by attributing them to others.

D)

banish anxiety-arousing thoughts from consciousness.

32.

Freud would have suggested that an excessive fixation is most likely to contribute to

A)

regression.

B)

learned helplessness.

C)

reciprocal determinism.

D)

self-serving bias.

33.

The defense mechanism by which people disguise threatening impulses by attributing them to others is called

A)

projection.

B)

displacement.

C)

fixation.

D)

reaction formation.

34.

Children who release unexpressed anger toward their parents by kicking the family pet illustrate the defense mechanism of

A)

projection.

B)

displacement.

C)

regression.

D)

reaction formation.

35.

The humanistic perspective emphasized the importance of

A)

projective tests.

B)

self-determination.

C)

reciprocal determinism.

D)

factor analysis.

36.

Maslow placed ________ at the base of his hierarchy of needs.

A)

cognitive needs

B)

social needs

C)

bodily needs

D)

spiritual needs

37.

Abraham Maslow suggested that those who fulfill their potential have satisfied the need for

A)

reciprocal determinism.

B)

an external locus of control.

C)

self-actualization.

D)

unconditional positive regard.

38.

Carl Rogers referred to an attitude of total acceptance toward another person as

A)

the spotlight effect.

B)

unconditional positive regard.

C)

self-actualization.

D)

free association.

39.

Humanistic theorists have been criticized for

A)

overestimating the impact of childhood experiences on adult personality.

B)

underestimating the inconsistency of behavior from one situation to another.

C)

overestimating the degree of similarity among people.

D)

underestimating the inherent human capacity for destructive and evil behaviors.

40.

Personality inventories are designed to assess several ________ at once.

A)

possible selves

B)

defense mechanisms

C)

attributional styles

D)

traits

41.

Mental health workers label behavior as disordered when it

A)

is aggressive, persistent, and intentional.

B)

is selfish, habitual, and avoidable.

C)

represents a significant dysfunction in a person's cognitions, emotions, or behaviors.

D)

is biologically influenced, unconsciously motivated, and difficult to change.

42.

Inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity are major symptoms of

A)

OCD.

B)

PTSD.

C)

ADHD.

D)

DID.

43.

According to the medical model, psychological disorders are

A)

sicknesses that need to be diagnosed and in most cases cured.

B)

maladaptive responses to a troubling environment.

C)

purely imaginary symptoms of distress.

D)

learned habits that need to be extinguished.

44.

The DSM-5 is most clearly designed to ________ psychological disorders.

A)

explain

B)

classify

C)

cure

D)

prevent

45.

In comparison to generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder is characterized by periods of distress that are

A)

more intense and more prolonged.

B)

less intense and less prolonged.

C)

more intense and less prolonged.

D)

less intense and more prolonged.

46.

The social withdrawal and haunting nightmares of battle-scarred war veterans best illustrate symptoms of

A)

DID.

B)

ADHD.

C)

OCD.

D)

PTSD.

47.

Abnormally low levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin are associated with

A)

panic attacks.

B)

schizophrenia.

C)

depression.

D)

dissociative disorders.

48.

Schizophrenia is most likely to be characterized by

A)

disorganized thinking and disturbed perceptions.

B)

a lack of guilt feelings.

C)

alternations between extreme hopelessness and unrealistic optimism.

D)

periodic intervals of uncontrollable violence.

49.

The onset of schizophrenia is typically associated with early

A)

infancy.

B)

childhood.

C)

adolescence.

D)

adulthood.

50.

Disruptive or withdrawn behavior, poor peer relations, and solo play have been noted as early warning signs of

A)

panic disorder.

B)

agoraphobia.

C)

schizophrenia.

D)

obsessive-compulsive disorder.