A theft of computer equipment would be classified as

Does Anyone Can Do Assignment For Criminal Justice ?

Chapter 2

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The Federal Bureau of Investigation runs the Uniform Crime Reporting Program.

2) Except for the crimes of rape and sexual assault, college students experience violence at average annual rates that are higher than those for nonstudents in the same age group.

3) The Police Executive Research Forum (PERF) releases the crime data it collects earlier than nationwide tallies are released by the FBI.

4) PERF reported that violent crime dropped significantly in 2006.

6) The clearance rate for burglary, as for other property crimes, is generally low.

7) Most stalking laws require that the perpetrator make a credible threat of violence against the victim or members of the victim's immediate family.

8) Most UCR/NIBRS information is reported as a rate of crime.

9) The clearance rate compares the number of crimes reported or discovered to the number of crimes solved through arrest or other means (such as the death of the suspect).

10) Most occurrences of motor vehicle theft are reported to law enforcement agencies.

11) Murders are usually committed by strangers.

12) Forcible rape is the least reported violent crime.

13) Women are victimized less frequently than men in every major crime category except rape.

14) Older victims are more likely to attempt to protect themselves than are younger ones.

15) The National Crime Victimization Survey is based on victim self-reports rather than on police reports.

16) When a man is the victim of a violent crime, he is more likely to be injured than a woman.

17) The theft of a motorboat would be classified by the UCR/NIBRS as a motor vehicle theft.

18) The FBI crime clock is a way of diagramming crime frequency in the United States.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

19) The weapons used most often to commit murder are:

A) fists.

B) blunt instruments.

C) knives.

D) firearms.

20) Which index crime has the highest clearance rate?

A) rape

B) robbery

C) arson

D) murder

21) All of the following are Part I offenses except:

A) motor vehicle theft.

B) larceny-theft.

C) murder.

D) vandalism.

22) Which major crime is most frequently reported to the police according to the UCR/NIBRS?

A) arson

B) rape

C) robbery

D) larceny-theft

23) The unlawful taking or attempted taking of property that is in the immediate possession of another, by force or violence and/or by putting the victim in fear, is known as:

A) burglary.

B) larceny.

C) robbery.

D) aggravated assault.

24) Most incidents of hate crime are motivated by:

A) racial hatred.

B) prejudice against ethnicity or national origin.

C) religious bias.

D) prejudice against male homosexuals.

25) Which of the following agencies is responsible for compiling the National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)?

A) Bureau of Justice Statistics

B) Federal Bureau of Investigation

C) local police departments

D) Office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency

26) The ________ is based on victim's reports rather than on police reports.

A) National Crime Victimization Survey

B) Uniform Crime Report

C) Bureau of Justice Studies

D) Hate Crime Statistics Report

27) Which of the following is a false statement?

A) The NCVS indicates that younger people are more likely than the elderly to be victims of crime.

B) The NCVS indicates that about half of all violent crimes are reported to the police.

C) The NCVS indicates that women are more likely to be victimized by crime than men.

D) The NCVS indicates that city residents are about twice as likely as rural residents to be victims of crime.

28) One example of a violent crime is:

A) rape.

B) motor vehicle theft.

C) burglary.

D) larceny theft.

29) Each of the following offenses falls under the category of larceny except for:

A) robbery.

B) thefts from motor vehicles.

C) bicycle thefts.

D) shoplifting.

30) The killing of four or more victims at one location within one event is termed:

A) serial murder.

B) mass murder.

C) spree killing.

D) manslaughter.

32) The burning or attempted burning of property with or without intent to defraud is called:

A) vandalism.

B) arson.

C) burglary.

D) fraud.

34) Simple assaults:

A) involve the use of a weapon.

B) cause the victim to require medical assistance.

C) typically involve pushing and shoving.

D) are more serious than aggravated assaults.

35) Which of the following would not be considered burglary by the UCR/NIBRS?

A) unlawful entry where no force is used

B) purse snatching

C) forcible entry

D) attempted forcible entry

36) Which of the following data sources asks respondents to reveal an illegal activity in which they have been involved?

A) offender self-reports

B) NCVS

C) victimization reports

D) Uniform Crime Reports

37) One of the crimes the National Crime Victimization Survey includes information about is:

A) white-collar crime.

B) kidnapping.

C) robbery.

D) murder.

38) Murder is considered a:

A) Part II offense.

B) dark figure of crime.

C) property crime.

D) violent crime.

39) Which Part I offense is least likely to occur?

A) murder

B) larceny-theft

C) motor vehicle theft

D) aggravated assault

40) The Uniform Crime Reporting Program is based on:

A) surveys conducted by the Gallup Poll organization.

B) surveys conducted by the police department.

C) interviews with the general population.

D) reports to the police.

45) About what percentage of rapes is reported to the police?

A) 16

B) 98

C) 86

D) 56

46) What is a term used to describe crimes that occur but are not reported to the police?

A) cleared cases

B) crime gaps

C) dark figure of crime

D) cold cases

48) A murderer who kills at two or more locations with almost no time break between murders is a:

A) serial murderer.

B) mass murderer.

C) spree killer.

D) rage murderer.

49) The most common form of larceny in recent years has been the theft of:

A) computer equipment.

B) motor vehicle parts, accessories and contents.

C) farm animals.

D) bicycles.

50) What is the most common form of arson?

A) arson of personal property

B) the intentional burning of structures

C) negligent arson

D) fires of suspicious origin

51) About fifty percent of hate crimes are motivated by ________ bias.

A) racial

B) gender

C) age

D) religious

52) A theft of computer equipment would be classified as:

A) computer crime.

B) high technology crime.

C) larceny.

D) cyberstalking.

53) Which source of data published by the Bureau of Justice Statistics is an annual compilation of national information on crime and the criminal justice system?

A) National Crime Victimization Survey

B) Source book of Criminal Justice Statistics

C) National Youth Survey

D) UniformCrimeReportingProgram

54) Sixteen thousand ________ provide crime data to the FBI for the UCR/NIBRS.

A) law enforcement agencies

B) law enforcement officers

C) criminologists

D) crime victims

55) Clearances are based primarily on:

A) judicial dispositions.

B) charges filed.

C) arrests.

D) convictions.

56) The theft of farm animals, or rustling, would be classified as:

A) robbery.

B) burglary.

C) motor vehicle theft.

D) larceny.

57) What piece of federal gun control legislation established a national instant criminal background check system?

A) Omnibus Crime Control Act

B) Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act

C) Domestic Violence Offender Gun Ban

D) Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act

58) The Sarbares-Oxley act focuses on what type of crime?

A) drug

B) organized

C) corporate

D) gun

59) The new UCR/NIBRS is different from the old UCR because:

A) Part I and Part II offenses are replaced with 22 general offenses.

B) statistics will be kept on homicide.

C) the NIBRS will be compiled by the FBI.

D) data will be reported by law enforcement agencies.

60) Beginning in ________ the FBI's UCR Program initiated a new national crime collection effort called the National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS).

A) 2006

B) 1915

C) 1930

D) 1988

61) The National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS)

A) is based on reports from crime victims.

B) does not report the rape of males.

C) represents a significant redesign of the original Uniform Crime Reporting Program.

D) retains the measure known as the Crime Index.

62) The ________ collects information on crimes suffered by individuals and households, whether of not those crimes were reported to law enforcement.

A) Uniform Crime Reporting Program

B) Crime Index

C) UCR/NIBRS

D) NCVS

Chapter 3

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Franz Joseph Gall studied the shape of the head to determine anatomical correlates of human behavior.

2) Jeremy Bentham devised the hedonistic calculus.

3) Travis Hirschi developed social control theory.

4) William Sheldon used somatotyping to explain juvenile criminal behavior.

5) The term reaction formation was coined to encompass the rejection of middle-class values by status- seeking lower-class youths who find they are not permitted access to approved opportunities for success.

6) Basic to the conflict perspective is the belief that conflict is a fundamental aspect of social life and it can never be fully resolved.

7) All deviant behavior is a violation of the criminal law.

8) Routine Activities Theory is a neoclassical perspective that suggests that mental illness contributes significantly to both the volume and type of crime found in any society.

9) Robert Merton applied the Anomie Theory to criminology and concluded that while the same goals and means were held out by society as desirable for everyone to participate in, they were not equally available to all.

10) Theories are tested by how well they describe and predict reality.

11) William Sheldon is considered the founder of the Classical School of criminology.

12) Edward Sutherland's differential association theory maintains that criminal behavior is learned.

13) Techniques of neutralization are rationalizations that allow offenders to shed any guilt or sense of responsibility for their behavior.

14) The Biological School views deviant behavior as the product of environmental forces.

15) Somatotyping is the attempt to categorize, understand, and predict the behavior of certain types of offenders based on behavioral clues they provide.

16) Peacemaking criminology holds that crime control agencies and the citizens they serve should work together to alleviate social problems and human suffering and thus reduce crime.

17) Studies of children adopted at birth show no tendency for the criminality of the biological parents to be reflected in the behavior of their children.

18) The name most widely associated with biological theories of crime is Sigmund Freud.

19) The Positivist School accepts that scientific techniques cannot be applied to the study of crime and criminals.

20) Lombroso is known as the founder of the Positivist School of criminology.

21) Behavioral conditioning holds that increased or decreased reward or punishment can determine the frequency of any behavior.

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

15) Which of the following is known as a biological theorist?

A) Lombroso

19) Sutherland

20) Merton

D) Vold

C) Shaw and McKay and their concentric zones would be classified within:

CI) conflict theory.

21) social ecology theory.

C) social control theory.

D) differential association theory.

24) William Sheldon believed predominately ________ individuals were most prone to aggression, violence, and delinquency.

C) mesomorphic

CI) ectomorphic

22) phenomorphic

D) endomorphic

B) Which of the following is not a fundamental assumption of psychological theories?

C) Crimes result from inappropriately conditioned behavior, or from abnormal, dysfunctional,or inappropriate mental processes.

23) A criminal's tendency to commit crime is inherited.

C) The individual is the primary unit of analysis.

CI) Personality is the major motivational element in individuals.

26) Using Merton's types of criminality, which type accepts society's goals but rejects the means to achieve them?

24) ritualist

B) retreatist

CI) innovator

D) conformist

25) Walter Reckless's containment theory describes two types of containment, which are known as:

B) outer and inner.

C) physical and nonphysical.

C) upper and lower.

D) body and mind.

28) ________ is a violation of social norms defining appropriate or proper behavior under a particular set of circumstances.

B) Deviance

C) Social Disorganization

CI) Moral enterprise

D) Anomie

27) Which of Merton's categories would a law-abiding citizen fall into?

A) ritualist

B) conformist

C) retreatist

D) innovator

28) All of the following are components of Travis Hirschi's social control theory except:

B) emotional attachments to significant others.

CI) a commitment to appropriate lifestyles.

C) desire to achieve important goals as an individual.

D) involvement in conventional values.

29) Sykes and Matza's neutralization techniques include all of the following except:

A) denial of injury.

C) denial of understanding.

C) denial of the victim.

D) denial of responsibility.

32) A juvenile who steals a candy bar and states "No one was really hurt," is using which neutralization technique?

CI) denial of injury

30) denial of responsibility

C) denial of victim

D) condemnation of the condemners

33) Which school of criminology explains criminal behavior by looking at physical characteristics and/or genetic makeup?

CI) Sociological School

31) Biological School

B) ConflictSchool

D) ClassicalSchool

C) All of the following theorists belong to the Sociological School except:

33) Emile Durkheim.

C) William Sheldon.

C) Robert Merton.

D) Walter Miller.

CI) What is atavism?

35) a term used to characterize aggression

B) a term used to denote one of the concentric zones

C) a condition characterized by the existence of features thought to be common in earlier stages of human evolution

D) a term used to describe anomie

CI) Which of the following terms refers to normlessness?

A) conflict

36) subculture

B) anomie

D) social ecology

C) ________ is the study of pathological mental conditions - that is, mental illness.

A) Conditioning

B) Profiling

C) Conflict perspective

D) Psychopathology

C) Which of the following theories does not belong in the Social-Psychological School?

A) phrenology

CI) social learning

38) containment

D) differential association

B) Which of Sheldon's body types is characterized by thinness, fragility, and delicacy?

A) ectomorphs

C) endomorphs

39) mesomorphs

D) phenomorphs

B) Which of the following theories proposes that the likelihood of crime increases when an individual's bond to society weakens?

C) social control

B) labeling

40) anomie

D) differential association

C) According to Robert Merton, a(n) ________ rejects both society's goals and means to achieve them.

A) conformist

CI) retreatist

41) ritualistic

D) innovator

C) According to Sutherland, criminal behavior is:

A) inherited.

46) learned.

C) psychopathological.

D) based on body type.

43) Marvin Wolfgang and Franco Ferracuti are often associated with which of the following terms? A) psychosis

CI) subculture of violence

47) sociopath

D) anomie

44) According to Robert Merton, a(n) ________ rejects the goals and accepts the means to achieve society's goals.

B) rebel

C) conformist

49) innovator

D) ritualist

C) According to Sykes and Matza, a criminal who states "I'm a product of my background" would be:

50) in denial of responsibility.

B) appealing to higher loyalties.

C) in denial of injury.

D) in denial of the victim.

C) A ________ is a set of interrelated propositions that attempt to describe, explain, predict and ultimately control some class of events.

51) somatotype

B) psychosis

B) theory

D) deviant

C) ________ theories challenge existing criminological perspectives to debunk them and work toward replacing them with concepts more applicable to the postmodern era.

52) Constitutive

B) Deconstructionist

C) Feminist

D) Peacemaking

CI) According to Merton, ________ were the revolutionaries of his theory.

A) innovators

53) ritualists

B) rebels

D) conformists

C) Sheldon would classify a juvenile with soft roundness throughout the body, short tapering limbs, and small bones as a(n) ________.

54) tyranomorph

B) mesomorph

B) endomorph

D) ectomorph

CI) What term does Howard Becker use to describe an advocacy group that participates in the political process so that it can have its values legitimized and embodied in law?

55) moral enterprise

B) moral panic

C) social construction

D) moral pressure

56) ________ criminology places the blame for criminality and deviant behavior upon officially sanctioned cultural and economic arrangements.

B) Containment

B) Phenomenological

C) Constitutive

D) Radical

57) A "supermale" is said to display what chromosomal structure?

A) XYY

C) XXY

CI) XX

D) XY

53) What would you call a scientist who examines the shape of the head to determine causes of human behavior?

B) botanist

C) nutritionalist

CI) atavist

D) phrenologist

59) Who wrote Essays on Crime and Punishment?

C) Ernest Hooten

CI) Franz Gall

C) Cesare Beccaria

D) Jeremy Bentham

55) A(n) ________ theoretical approach integrates a variety of viewpoints in an attempt to explain crime and violence.

60) interdisciplinary

B) constitutive

C) peacemaking

D) containment

CI) Who devised the hedonistic calculus?

61) Cesare Beccaria

B) Ernest Hooten

C) Franz Gall

D) Jeremy Bentham

CI) An eighteenth-century approach to crime causation and criminal responsibility that grew out of the enlightenment and that emphasized the role of free will and reasonable punishments.

A) Biological School

B) Classical School

62) Psychological School

D) PositivistSchool

B) A perspective on criminological thought that views offensive and deviant behavior as the product of dysfunctional personalities.

C) Biological School

B) Psychological School

CI) Chicago School

D) ClassicalSchool

63) Chaos theory, discourse analysis, and realist criminology are all examples of:

B) peacemaking.

CI) feminist criminology.

C) post-modern criminology.

D) phenomenological criminology.

60) Which of the following is not considered an emergent perspective?

A) anomie

B) post-modern

C) feminist

D) deconstructionist

61) A sociological approach that emphasizes demographics and geographics and that sees the social disorganization that characterizes delinquency areas as a major cause of criminality and victimization.

A) Psychological School

B) Chicago School

C) Positivist School

D) Postmodernism

62) Which of the following is not a "pathway" to delinquency according to the Program of Research on the Causes and Correlates of Delinquency study?

A) covert

B) moral

C) authority-conflict

D) overt

63) Which theoretical perspective investigates developments and turning points in the course of a person's life over time?

A) lifecourse

B) labeling

C) conflict

D) neoclassical

64) What term describes the attempt to categorize, understand, and predict the behavior of certain types of offenders based upon behavioral clues they provide?

A) labeling

B) behavior modification

C) psychological profiling

D) social learning

65) Which of the following theories represents a social development perspective?

A) differential association

B) lifecourse

C) social control

D) routine activities

66) A perspective on crime causation that holds that criminality is the result of conscious choice.

A) Rational Choice Theory

B) Social Learning Theory

C) Social Process Theory

D) Routine Activities Theory

67) Neoclassical criminology emphasizes:

A) biological destiny.

B) rationality and cognition.

C) slow but certain punishment.

D) free will and hedonistic calculus.

68) Freda Adler wrote a book titled "________ in Crime?"

A) Brothers

B) Trends

C) Partners

D) Sisters

Chapter 4

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) The M'Naghten Rule is a rule for determining when necessity can be claimed as a defense.

2) From the point of view of the criminal law, insanity has a medical definition and not a legal one.

3) Bob has been accused of robbing Rayon Thursday in Illinois. Bob can show he was in Ohio on Thursday. Bob has an alibi.

4) A harm occurs in any crime, although not all harms are crimes.

5) Reckless behavior does not increase the risk of harm.

6) Ex-post facto is Latin for "the fact is wrong."

7) Procedural defenses focus on discrimination by the justice process.

8) A crime that has not been fully carried out or an attempt of a crime is considered an inchoate offense.

9) The principle of recognizing previous decisions as precedents to guide future deliberations is called stare decisis.

10) A necessary first feature of any crime is some act in violation of the law.

11) A tort is a wrongful act, damage, or injury not involving a breach of contract.

12) When a person below the age required for adult prosecution commits a crime, it is termed an inchoate offense.

13) Civil suits seek punishment, not compensation.

14) Civil law provides a formal means for regulating noncriminal relationships among persons, business, and other agencies of government.

16) Common law is law that originates from written statutes.

16) Felonies are serious crimes.

20) Actus reus means "guilty act."

18) Corpus delicti literally means "the body of the crime."

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

21) ________ is a term that describes the philosophy of law.

D) Stare Decisis

CII) Jurisprudence

C) Precedent

D) Inchoate

22) Which of the following is considered the "law on the books"?

A) statutory

D) common

CII) case

D) administrative

23) Which of the following types of law is based on the assumption that acts injure not just individuals, but society as a whole?

C) tort law

B) administrative law

D) civil law

D) criminal law

24) Which of the following refers to a traditional body of early unwritten legal precedents created from everyday social customs, rules, and practices?

D) common law

B) statutory law

CII) codes

D) law of the land

25) What part of the criminal law deals with defining crimes and specifying punishments?

A) procedural

C) substantive

CII) civil

D) common

24) What term expresses the belief that a society must be governed by established principles to maintain order?

26) rule of law

C) stare decisis

D) codification

D) inchoate

C) Which type of law refers to the body of regulations that the government creates to control the activities of industry, business, and individuals?

D) case law

B) procedural law

CII) administrative law

D) criminal law

26) ________ regulates the gathering of evidence and the processing of offenders by the criminal justice system.

28) Procedural law

C) Criminal law

D) Administrative law

D) Civil law

29) Which of the following violations is not a misdemeanor?

A) robbery

C) disturbing the peace

CII) petty theft

D) disorderly conduct

30) Which of the following would not be categorized as a felony?

A) robbery

D) murder

CII) simple assault

D) rape

31) Most crimes have three elements. Which one of these is not one of the elements?

A) motive

D) the concurrence of act and intent

CII) actus reus

D) mens rea

32) Our legal system generally recognizes all of the following broad categories of defenses except:

A) pleadings.

C) alibi.

D) procedural defenses.

D) justifications.

34) On occasion, a person may be tricked into consuming an intoxicating substance. This may support a defense is known as:

D) duress.

B) entrapment.

CII) involuntary intoxication.

D) necessity.

36) Which of the following terms refers to gathering, transmitting, or losing information related to the national defense in such a manner that the information becomes available to enemies of the United States?

A) misdemeanors

C) inchoate offenses

D) conspiracies

D) espionage

CII) Which of the following is a justification defense?

A) duress

37) insanity

C) double jeopardy

D) self-defense

D) Murder, rape, robbery, and assault all fall under what branch of modern law?

A) criminal

C) procedural

D) administrative

D) civil

CII) Which of the following is a procedural defense?

A) necessity

39) consent

C) mistake

D) double jeopardy

D) An alibi defense is best supported by:

40) a spouse's testimony.

C) rumor and hearsay.

C) a defendant's testimony.

D) witnesses and documentation.

D) Tax laws, building codes, and health codes are examples of what type of law?

41) administrative law

D) environmental law

C) procedural law

D) natural law

CII) Which of the following elements of crime means "guilty mind"?

42) corpus delicti

D) actus reus

C) stare decisis

D) mens rea

47) An excuse defense includes which of the following?

A) entrapment

D) age

CII) necessity

D) self-defense

48) Jaywalking is generally considered a(n):

A) offense.

C) inchoate.

D) felony.

D) misdemeanor.

50) Search and seizure, arrest procedures, and general rules of evidence are considered:

A) procedural law.

D) substantive law.

C) administrative law.

D) civil law.

51) The facts surrounding an event are called:

A) motive.

C) attendant circumstances.

D) precedent.

D) causation.

52) Which of the following is a procedural defense?

C) prosecutorial misconduct

D) alibi

C) insanity

D) mistake

53) How many levels or types of mens rea can be distinguished?

A) four

D) two

CII) three

D) one

54) A special category of crimes that require no culpable mental state.

A) equity

C) strict liability

D) attendant liability

D) truthful

55) A person's reason for committing a crime is considered:

A) inchoate.

C) procedural.

CII) prohibita.

D) motive.

56) When a police officer induces a subject to commit a crime, a defendant will probably use:

C) an excuse defense.

D) a justification defense.

C) a procedural defense.

D) an alibi.

57) Typically civil lawsuits seek:

C) to punish a wrongdoer.

D) compensation.

58) to deter others from committing a similar offense.

D) to protect society.

D) The principle of recognizing previous decisions as precedents to guide future deliberations is called:

A) actus rea.

CII) mens rea.

C) stare decisis.

D) corpus delicti.

50) Which crime best describes an attempt to overthrow the government of the society of which one is a member?

D) conspiracy

CII) espionage

60) treason

D) infraction

D) Which type of a defense is an attorney using when the attorney claims that the defendant's actions were necessary to ensure the defendant's physical safety?

CII) defense of others

B) consent

61) self-defense

D) defense of home and property

52) When a person below the age required for criminal prosecution commits a crime, it is called: A) deviance.

C) a major offense.

D) a juvenile offense.

D) absence of malice.

CII) Which Constitutional Amendment guarantees the right to a speedy trial?

A) Fourth

62) Sixth

C) Fifth

D) Eighth

CII) When the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature of the charges and the proceedings against the defendant, and is unable to consult with his or her attorney and aid in his or her defense; the defendant will be declared:

A) incompetent.

63) guilty but mentally ill.

C) insane.

D) of diminished capacity.

D) A common law and constitutional prohibition against a second trial for the same offense.

CII) ex-post facto

64) entrapment

C) double jeopardy

D) stare decisis

C) Diminished capacity is a:

A) procedure.

CII) verdict.

61) rule of law.

D) defense.

C) Bob is sitting on a park bench minding his own business when an undercover police officer comes up to Bob and talks him into buying some marijuana. Then the officer arrests Bob for possession of marijuana. Bob can claim the defense of:

A) duress.

CI) necessity.

62) double jeopardy.

D) entrapment.

B) A verdict, equivalent to a finding of "guilty", that establishes that the defendant, although mentally ill, was in sufficient possession of his or her facilities to be morally blameworthy for his or her acts.

C) diminished capacity

B) guilty but mentally ill

CI) not guilty by reason of insanity

D) guilty but insane

63) The ________ rule is a rule of law that holds that a person can only defend a third party under circumstances and only to the degree that the third party could act on his or her own behalf.

B) M'Naghten

B) procedural

CI) substantive

D) alter ego

B) Ray threatens to spit on Bob and Bob defends himself by shooting Ray. Bob has:

C) used reasonable force.

CI) a legal justification.

C) used excessive force.

D) a procedural defense.

65) When a defendant admits to committing the act in question but claims it was necessary in order to avoid some greater harm the defendant's defense is a/an:

B) procedural defense.

B) justification.

CI) excuse.

D) alibi.

66) A/An ________ of a crime is an essential feature of a crime, as specified by law.

A) defense

B) element

C) procedure

D) infraction

67) ________ is/are a person's reason for committing a crime.

C) Corpus delicti

68) Motive

C) Attendant circumstances

D) Concurrence

B) The coexistence of (1) an act in violation of the law and (2) a culpable mental state.

C) corpus delicti

69) motive

C) strict liability

D) concurrence

C) A/An ________ offense is an offense not yet completed. Also, an offense that consists of an action or conduct that is a step toward the intended commission of the offense.

CI) inchoate

B) ticketable

C) treasonable

D) alter ego

66) An offense punishable by incarceration, usually in local confinement facility, for a period whose upper limit is prescribed by statute in a given jurisdiction, typically one year or less.

A) offense

B) tort

C) misdemeanor

D) felony

67) A criminal offense punishable by death or by incarceration in prison for at least one year.

A) offense

B) misdemeanor

C) felony

D) tort

68) The part of the law that specifies the methods to be used in enforcing substantive law.

A) administrative law

B) common law

C) procedural law

D) case law

69) A ________ must be demonstrated in court in order to hold an individual criminal liable for causing harm.

A) justification

B) motive

C) civil wrong

D) legal cause

Chapter 5

TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.

1) Policing in early America has been described as decentralized, geographically dispersed, and highly personalized.

2) The Law Enforcement Assistance Administration is an important part of the criminal justice system in the twenty-first century.

3) The growth in the size of private security in the first years of the twenty-first century has been very little.

4) In any discussion of evidence-based policing, it is important to remember that the word" evidence" refers to criminal evidence, not scientific evidence.

5) Vigilantism is the act of taking the law in to one's own hands.

6) Jonathan Wild, who founded the Bow Street Runners,broke up a fencing operation built around a group of robbers, thieves, and burglars in the early 1700s.

7) The two basic principles of the London Metropolitan new police,at its inception, were the use of preventive patrol and the belief that crime can be discouraged.

8) The Metropolitan Police were initially well received by Londoners.

9) Citizen posses and vigilante groups were often the only law available to settlers on the Western frontier.

10) A decentralized state police agency operates with two agencies-a highway patrol and a state bureau of investigation.

11) There are twice as many public law enforcement officers in the United States than there are private security personnel.

17) Police chiefs are elected, and the mayor usually appoints sheriffs.

21) In 1967 the LEAA was responsible for creating the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act.

14) The new police of the London Metropolitan Police Force were also known as "Bobbies."

MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

22) The new police of London were formed in:

A) 1829.

B)1954.

C)1915.

D) 2001.

23) Comes stabuli:

A)was a mounted officer responsible for leading posses.

B)provides an example of policing in urban centers.

C)was created by Henry Fielding.

D) was large, organized group of law enforcement officials.

24)The Statute of Winchester:

A)was written by Robert Peel.

B)created the watch and ward.

C)was used by the Bow Street Runners to apprehend violent criminals.

D) formed the new police.

26)The Bow Street Runners:

A)were the most undisciplined enforcement agents in London.

B)still function in New York today.

C)were a ruthless gang of robbers.

D) were created by Henry Fielding.

27) Attempts to police the early Western frontier can be characterized as:

A) vigilantism.

D) desperado justice.

E) lex talionis.

D) expansion justice.

28)Which state created "the first modern state police agency"?

A)Pennsylvania

B)New York

C) Virginia

D) Maryland

29) Which of the following people was associated with London's New Police?

A)Charles Lynch

B)J. Edgar Hoover

C) Robert Peel

D) Alice Stebbins Wells

30) Which commission, started in 1931, recognized prohibition as unenforceable as well as a catalyst to police corruption?

A)Wickersham

B)Bean

C)Price

D) McWhorter

31) The Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment established that:

A)preventive patrol does reduce citizen fear of crime.

B)preventive patrol doesn't reduce citizen fear of crime.

C)police response time greatly affects the apprehension rate of suspects.

D) "preventable crimes" are indeed prevented by patrol.

32)Which of the following American presidents also served as New York City police commissioner?

A)Theodore Roosevelt

B)Dwight Eisenhower

C) John Kennedy

D) JohnAdams

33)A centralized state law enforcement agency:

A)combines criminal investigations with patrol of state highways.

B)has only one headquarters.

C)is less expensive to operate.

D) is characteristic in the Southern United States.

34) Which of the following is not a prominent private security firm?

A) Wells Fargo

B)Pinkerton

C)Wackenhut

D) Enron

34) Which agency would not be encompassed by the term local police?

A)Sheriff's Department

B) Campus Police

C) State Police

D) Municipal Police Department

35) Which of the following is typically not a function of a sheriff's department?

A) provide law enforcement throughout a county or area between municipalities

B) appoint a local coroner

C) serve court papers

D) maintain and manage county jails

36) In what year was the Law Enforcement Assistance Administration established?

A) 2001

B) 1920

C) 1910

D) 1969

37) The preeminent organization for private security professionals.

A) ASIS

B) FBI

C) USDA

D) LEAA

38) The nation's largest law enforcement agency is in:

A) Chicago.

B) New York.

C) Miami.

D) LosAngeles.

39) Which of the following is not a major level of law enforcement?

A) federal

B) state

C) district

D) local

40) What strategy is designed to increase the productivity of patrol officers through the application of scientific analysis and evaluation of patrol techniques?

A) centralized patrol

B) supervised patrol

C) directed patrol

D) analytical patrol

41)Bailiffs were initially used in English cities and town to:

A) maintain order in the courts.

B) protect political leaders.

C) maintain a night watch.

D) police urban ghettos.

42) Alice Stebbins Wells is considered:

A) the first police woman in the world.

B) the first woman to be killed in the line of duty.

C) the first woman to be arrested by Robert Peel.

D) the first woman to be the director of the FBI.

43) Another name for the National Commission of Law Observance and Enforcement is:

A) the Nixon Commission.

B)the Wickersham Commission.

C) the President's Commission.

D) the Johnson Commission.

44) Which of the following individuals is not a famous frontier American lawman?

A) Wyatt Earp

B) "Wild Bill" Hickok

C) Judge Roy Bean

D) ColinWoods

45) What is considered the backbone of police work?

A) traffic

B) crime analysis

C) investigation

D) patrol

46) What federal agency is responsible for managing the database of DNA profiles?

A) Federal Bureau of Investigation

B) U.S. Customs

C) The League of Scientists

D) Drug Enforcement Administration

47) Which local law enforcement official is responsible for serving court papers, maintaining security within courtrooms, and running the county jail?

A) sheriff

B) police chief

C) bailiff

D) prosecutor

48) The Hallcrest Report II provides the results of an analysis of what type of law enforcement agency?

A) local

B) federal

C) state

D) private security

49) Which of the following is not a reason for the rapid growth of the private security industry?

A) increases in the number of crimes in the workplace

B) public law enforcement agencies requesting the help of private security

C) increases in the fear of crime

D) the fiscal public crises of the states

50)________ is the use of best available research on the outcomes of police work to implement guidelines and evaluate agencies, units, and officers.

A) Counterterrorism

B) Evidence-based policing

C) The centralized model

D) Community policing

51) ________ is an early form of police patrol in English cities and towns.

A) Scientific police management

B) Vigilantism

C) Night watch

D) Directed patrol

52) The FBI employs about ________ special agents.

A) 180,000

B) 210,000

C) 30,000

D) 13,000