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Refer to exhibit 7-3. investment is equal to

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Fall 2012 Econ 2003 Test 4


VERSION A Name _______________________________ Banner _______________________________ Signature _______________________________ Date _______________________________ Section _______________________________ By taking this Exam you are Agreeing to the Following Policy The University expects every student to maintain a high standard of individual integrity. Scholastic dishonesty is a serious offense that includes, but is not limited to, cheating on a test or other class work, plagiarism (the appropriation of another's work and the unauthorized incorporation of that work in one's own work), and collusion (unauthorized collaboration with another person in preparing college work offered for credit). In cases of scholastic dishonesty, the faculty member responsible for the case may initiate disciplinary proceedings against the student. BY TAKING THIS TEST YOU ARE AGREEING TO THE ABOVE POLICY AND ALSO TO WORK BY YOURSELF ON THIS TEST. PLEASE BRING BOTH THE PRINTED EXAM AND A PROPERLY FILLED OUT F-1712 PAR-L 200 QUESTION FORM


____ 1. The demand for a product is the amount that


a. sellers are willing to sell at a particular price b. buyers are willing to purchase at a given price c. buyers purchase in the market d. buyers are willing and able to purchase at alternative prices e. buyers are able to purchase at a specific price


____ 2. A demand curve shows how quantity demanded changes as the price changes. It implies that a. economists are concerned only with money b. it is impossible to show how anything but price affects demand c. only a change in price can shift a demand curve d. quantity demanded is unrelated to price e. everything else that affects demand is assumed to be constant


____ 3. If pretzels are a normal good, the income effect of a price change means that a. as income increases, the demand curve for pretzels shifts rightward b. as the price of pretzels increases, income increases c. as income increases, the quantity demanded increases along the demand curve for pretzels d. as the price of pretzels increases, the real income of individuals who demand pretzels


decreases, so the quantity demanded of pretzels decreases e. as income increases, the demand curve for pretzels shifts leftward


____ 4. A demand curve usually has a a. positive slope because price and quantity demanded are inversely related b. negative slope because as price rises, demand falls c. positive slope because price and quantity demanded are positively related d. slope of zero because there is no change along a demand curve when everything else is


held constant e. negative slope because price and quantity demanded are inversely related


____ 5. The demand curve for spinach shows the quantity demanded of spinach a. as income increases b. as income decreases c. only at the equilibrium price of spinach d. at each possible price of spinach e. at each possible price of a substitute good


____ 6. Studies show that the demand curve for peas has shifted. Which of the following explanations would you reject first? a. The demand for string beans has changed. b. The price of peas has changed. c. The income of consumers has changed. d. The demand for corn has changed. e. The price of string beans has changed.


____ 7. The effect of a decrease in the price of personal computers, other things constant, is likely to be best represented by which of the following? a. a rightward shift of the demand curve b. a movement leftward along the demand curve c. a rightward shift of the supply curve d. a leftward shift of the demand curve e. a movement rightward along the demand curve


____ 8. If we say that demand has increased, we mean that there has been a. a rightward shift of the demand curve b. an increase in the slope of the demand curve c. a leftward movement along the demand curve d. a rightward movement along the demand curve e. a leftward shift of the demand curve


____ 9. A decrease in demand for a good could mean that a. the demand curve has shifted to the left b. consumers are willing to pay a higher price for each quantity of the good c. the demand curve has undergone a parallel shift to the right d. consumers are willing to buy larger quantities of the good at each price e. the demand curve has undergone a nonparallel shift to the right


____ 10. A change in income will a. affect the quantity demanded of candy through the income effect of a price change b. affect the demand for candy through the income effect of a price change c. affect quantity demanded only if candy is a normal good d. have no effect on the demand for candy, because income is assumed constant along a


demand curve e. shift the demand curve for candy


____ 11. Which of the following is most likely to be an inferior good? a. soft drinks b. a subscription to the Wall Street Journal c. restaurant meals d. airline travel e. used clothing


____ 12. Which of the following is most likely to be a normal good? a. bus rides b. tickets to major league baseball games c. trips to the laundromat d. used paperback books e. macaroni-and-cheese dinners


____ 13. The difference between normal and inferior goods is that a. an increase in price will shift the demand curve for a normal good rightward and the


demand curve for an inferior good leftward b. normal goods are of better quality than inferior goods c. an increase in income will shift the demand curve for a normal good rightward and the


demand curve for an inferior good leftward d. an inferior good is something that will not be demanded until quantities of the normal


good have been exhausted e. if the price of a normal good increases, individuals who buy it are poorer; for inferior


goods, the opposite is true


____ 14. Which of the following will cause the demand curve for gasoline to shift leftward? a. a rightward shift of the supply of cars b. a decrease in the price of bicycles c. an increase in the price of gasoline d. a decrease in the price of gasoline e. a leftward shift of the supply of gasoline


____ 15. Two goods are considered substitutes only if a(n) a. decrease in the price of one leads to an increase in the demand for the other b. decrease in the supply of one leads producers to switch to production of the other c. increase in the price of one leads to an increase in the demand for the other d. decrease in the demand for one leads to a decrease in the supply of the other e. increase in the demand for one leads to a decrease in the supply of the other


____ 16. If the price of vanilla ice cream decreases, it is likely that a. demand for chocolate ice cream will increase b. demand for vanilla ice cream will increase c. the quantity demanded of vanilla ice cream will decrease d. demand for chocolate ice cream will decrease e. demand for vanilla ice cream will decrease


____ 17. An increase in the price of butter, a substitute good, would be most likely to cause a. a rightward shift of the demand curve for margarine b. the quantity of margarine demanded to increase c. the quantity of margarine demanded to decrease d. a decrease in the price of margarine e. a leftward shift of the demand curve for margarine


____ 18. Sugar and honey are viewed as substitutes for each other in many cooking applications. If the price of sugar rises, we would expect a. the quantity demanded of honey to decrease b. the demand for honey to increase c. the demand for honey to decrease d. the quantity demanded of honey to increase e. the price of honey to decrease


____ 19. Which of the following is the best example of complements? a. hiking boots and athletic shoes b. CDs and DVDs c. film and film processing (developing) d. milk and cheese e. coffee and tea


____ 20. If the price of potato chips increases, other things constant, demand for potato-chip dip will a. increase because the goods are substitutes b. decrease because the goods are substitutes c. not change; only quantity demanded will change d. decrease because the goods are complements e. increase because the goods are complements


____ 21. If good B is a complement to good A, then a decrease in the price of B a. increases the demand for A b. decreases the demand for A c. will cause the demand for B to increase d. decreases the quantity demanded of A e. increases the quantity demanded of A


____ 22. If good B is a complement to good A, then a rise in the price of B a. decreases the demand for A b. will cause the demand for B to increase c. decreases the quantity demanded of A d. increases the demand for A e. increases the quantity demanded of A


____ 23. A decrease in the demand for peanut butter could be caused by a(n) a. increase in the price of peanut butter b. doubling of the price of bread c. drought in Georgia that destroyed 30 percent of the peanut crop d. increase in the supply of peanut butter e. increase in consumer income


____ 24. An increase in the demand for peanut butter could be caused by a(n) a. increase in the supply of peanut butter b. decrease in the price of bread c. drought in Georgia that destroyed 30 percent of the peanut crop d. decrease in consumer income e. decrease in the price of bologna


____ 25. Which of the following statements about gold jewelry and round-trip bus tickets to Bismarck, North Dakota, is most likely to be correct? a. Their demand curves probably are quite similar. b. They are both inferior goods. c. They are unrelated. d. They are complements. e. They are substitutes.


Exhibit 4-2


____ 26. Refer to Exhibit 4-2. A shift from demand curve D to D' illustrates a(n)


a. decrease in quantity demanded b. increase in quantity demanded c. increase in supply d. decrease in demand e. increase in demand


____ 27. Refer to Exhibit 4-2. Which of the following would cause a shift of demand from D' to D? a. an increase in the price of a substitute good b. a decrease in the price of a complementary good c. an increase in the number of consumers d. a decline in consumers' incomes if it is a normal good e. an increase in consumers' incomes if it is a normal good


____ 28. In Exhibit 4-2, which of the following could not cause the shift from D to D'? a. an increase in the price of a substitute b. a decrease in the price of a complement c. an increase in the number of consumers d. a decrease in income if the good in question is an inferior good e. a decrease in the price of the good in question


____ 29. If the tea harvest is bad in a particular year, the supply of tea will a. decrease, its price will decrease, and the quantity demanded of coffee will increase b. decrease, its price will increase, and the quantity demanded of coffee will decrease c. increase, its price will increase, and the quantity demanded of coffee will increase d. decrease, its price will decrease, and the quantity demanded of coffee will decrease e. decrease, its price will increase, and the quantity demanded of coffee will increase


____ 30. A rightward shift of a supply curve a. would cause an excess quantity supplied at the previous equilibrium price b. might be caused by a price ceiling c. might be caused by a decrease in demand d. might be caused by an increase in demand e. represents a decrease in supply


____ 31. A decrease in supply will cause a(n) a. decrease in quantity demanded b. decrease in equilibrium price c. increase in quantity demanded d. decrease in demand e. increase in demand


____ 32. An increase in supply will cause equilibrium price to __________ and equilibrium quantity to __________. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. increase; decrease d. decrease; increase e. remain constant; increase


____ 33. An increase in supply will cause a(n) a. decrease in equilibrium quantity demanded b. decrease in demand c. increase in demand d. increase in quantity demanded e. increase in equilibrium price


____ 34. A new hormone will increase the amount of milk each cow produces. If this hormone is adopted by many dairies, what will be the effect on the milk market? a. an increase in supply, lower equilibrium price, and higher equilibrium quantity b. a decrease in supply, lower equilibrium price, and higher equilibrium quantity c. an increase in supply, higher equilibrium price, and higher equilibrium quantity d. an increase in supply, higher equilibrium price, and lower equilibrium quantity e. a decrease in supply, lower equilibrium price, and lower equilibrium quantity


____ 35. A decrease in the supply of chocolate chips would usually result in a a. higher equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity b. higher equilibrium price and a lower equilibrium quantity c. lower equilibrium price and a lower equilibrium quantity d. lower equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity e. decrease in the demand for chocolate chips


Exhibit 4-4


____ 36. In Exhibit 4-4, suppose a price floor is established at $20.00. What is the result?


a. a surplus of 20 units b. there is no change from the situation that exists at the equilibrium price c. a shortage of 10 units d. a shortage of 20 units e. a surplus of 10 units


Exhibit 4-12


____ 37. Refer to exhibit 4-12. An increase in the price of baby formula would cause which of the following to


happen? a. move from b on demand curve D1 to c on demand curve D2 b. move on demand curve D2 from d to c c. demand shift from D2 to D1 d. move on demand curve D1 from a to b e. demand shift from D1 to D2


____ 38. Refer to exhibit 4-12. A decrease in the price of baby formula would cause which of the following to happen? a. a movement from a to b on demand curve D1 b. demand shift from D1 to D2 c. movement from c to d on demand curve D2 d. demand shift from D2 to D1 e. either a or b


____ 39. Refer to exhibit 4-12. The discovery that breast milk provides more protection against disease than baby formula will cause which of the following to happen? a. a movement from a to b on demand curve D1 b. a demand shift from D1 to D2 c. movement from c to d on demand curve D2 d. demand shift from D2 to D1 e. either a or b


____ 40. Refer to exhibit 4-12. An increase in consumer income will cause which of the following to happen if baby formula is an inferior good? a. demand shift from D1 to D2 b. movement from b to a on demand curve D1 c. movement from d to c on demand curve D2 d. demand shift from D2 to D1 e. none of the above


____ 41. Refer to exhibit 4-12. An increase in the birth rate would cause which of the following to happen? a. movement from b to a on demand curve D1


b. movement from d on demand curve D2 to a on demand curve D1 c. demand shift from D2 to D1 d. demand shift from D1 to D2 e. movement from d to c on demand curve D2


Exhibit 4-13


____ 42. Refer to exhibit 4-13. An increase in the price of baby formula will cause which of the following to occur?


a. a movement from a to b on supply curve S1 b. a movement from b to a on supply curve S1 c. supply shift from S2 to S1 d. a movement from d to c on supply curve S2 e. supply shift from S1 to S2


____ 43. Refer to exhibit 4-13. A decrease in the price of baby formula will cause which of the following to happen? a. movement from c to d on supply curve S2 b. movement from b to a on supply curve S1 c. supply shift from S2 to S1 d. supply shift from S1 to S2 e. none of the above


____ 44. Refer to exhibit 4-13. The discovery that breast milk offers greater health protection to babies than baby formula will cause which of the following to happen? a. supply shift from S2 to S1 b. supply shift from S1 to S2 c. movement from a to b on supply curve S1 d. movement from d to c on supply curve S2 e. movement from c to d on supply curve S2


____ 45. Refer to exhibit 4-13. The development of more efficient production technologies for baby formula will cause which of the following to happen? a. movement from c to d on supply curve S2 b. supply shift from S1 to S2 c. movement from b to a on supply curve S1 d. movement from a to b on supply curve S1 e. supply shift from S2 to S1


____ 46. Refer to exhibit 4-13. An increase in the number of firms producing baby formula will cause which of the following to happen? a. supply shift from S1 to S2 b. movement from c to d along supply curve S2 c. movement from d to c along supply curve S2 d. a movement from a to b along supply curve S1 e. supply shift from S2 to S1


Exhibit 4-14


____ 47. Refer to exhibit 4-14. If the market for baby formula is given by the demand curve D1 and the supply curve


S1, what is the equilibrium price and quantity? a. P1, Q2 b. P4, Q3 c. P1, Q1 d. P2, Q1 e. P3, Q4


____ 48. Refer to exhibit 4-14. If the market demand for baby formula is given by demand curve D2 and the supply is given by supply curve S2, which of the following is the market equilibrium? a. P1, Q1 b. P4, Q3 c. P2, Q1 d. P1, Q1 e. P3, Q4


____ 49. Refer to exhibit 4-14. The market demand curve is given by D1 and the supply by S1. Equilibrium price is P2 and equilibrium quantity is Q1. What will the new equilibrium price and quantity be if there is an increase in the birth rate? a. P3 and Q4 b. P2 and Q2 c. P1 and Q2 d. P4 and Q3 e. P2 and Q1


____ 50. In which of the following situations will the effect upon the equilibrium price of wheat be indeterminate? a. supply decreases and demand increases b. supply decreases and demand decreases c. demand remains constant and supply increases d. supply remains constant and demand increases e. demand decreases and supply increases


Exhibit 6-7 Cost schedule for a firm


Quantity Total Cost Marginal Cost 0 $ 200 1 900 2 $900 3 3,000


____ 51. In Exhibit 6-7, by filling in the blanks it can be determined that the fixed costs are


a. 3,000. b. 200. c. 900. d. 0. e. 1,000.


____ 52. In Exhibit 6-7, by filling in the blanks it can be determined that the marginal cost of the first unit of output is: a. 700. b. 1,000. c. 200. d. 900. e. 3,000.


____ 53. In Exhibit 6-7, by filling in the blanks it can be determined that the total cost of the second unit of output is: a. 0. b. 1,800. c. 1,000. d. 700. e. 1,200.


____ 54. In Exhibit 6-7, by filling in the blanks, it can be determined that the marginal cost of the third unit of output is: a. 700. b. 200. c. 2,000. d. 1,200. e. 0.


Exhibit 6-8 Costs schedules for producing pizza


Pizzas


Fixed Cost


Variable Cost


Total Cost


Marginal Cost


0 $ $ $ $ 1 5 2 13 3 10 4 100 140 5 20 6 85 7 215


____ 55. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the total cost of producing zero pizzas is shown to be equal to:


a. $5. b. $95. c. $100. d. zero. e. $105.


____ 56. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the total cost of producing 3 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $23. b. $100. c. $113. d. $105. e. $123.


____ 57. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the total cost of producing 5 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $113. b. $100. c. $160. d. $105. e. $123.


____ 58. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the variable cost of producing 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $185. b. $60. c. $40. d. $100. e. $85.


____ 59. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the fixed cost of producing 6 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $200. b. $150. c. $185. d. $100. e. $85.


____ 60. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the average variable cost of producing 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $10. b. $40. c. $85. d. $15. e. $20.


____ 61. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the average total cost of producing 5 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $160. b. $12. c. $32. d. $15. e. $85.


____ 62. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the marginal cost of the fourth pizza is shown to be equal to: a. $10. b. $17. c. $23. d. $40. e. $15.


____ 63. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-8, the marginal cost of the sixth pizza is shown to be equal to: a. $15. b. $25. c. $10. d. $20. e. $85.


Exhibit 6-9 Cost schedule for firm X


Output Quantity


Total Fixed Cost


Total Variable Cost


0 $100 $ 0 1 100 50 2 100 84 3 100 108 4 100 127 5 100 150


____ 64. As shown in Exhibit 6-9, the total cost of producing 4 units is:


a. $250. b. $100. c. $227. d. zero.


____ 65. As shown in Exhibit 6-9, the total cost of producing 5 units is: a. $227. b. $100. c. $250. d. zero.


____ 66. As shown in Exhibit 6-9, the marginal cost of producing the third unit is: a. $50. b. $16. c. $23. d. $24.


Exhibit 6-12 Cost schedule for producing pizza


Pizzas


Fixed Cost


Variable Cost


Total Cost


0 $ $ $ 1 48 2 17 3 27 4 78 5 40 6 64 7 80


____ 67. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the AFC of 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to:


a. $10. b. $9.50. c. $78. d. $19.50. e. $40.


____ 68. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the AFC of 3 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $13.33. b. $9. c. $10. d. $40. e. $22.33.


____ 69. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the AVC of 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $19.50. b. $40. c. $10. d. $78. e. $9.50.


____ 70. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the AVC of 3 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $40. b. $13.33. c. $9. d. $10. e. $22.33.


____ 71. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the ATC of 3 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $40. b. $10. c. $13.33. d. $22.33. e. $9.


____ 72. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the ATC of 4 pizzas is shown to be equal to: a. $9.50. b. $10. c. $78. d. $40. e. $19.50.


____ 73. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the marginal cost of the fourth pizza is shown to be equal to: a. $11. b. $12. c. $10. d. $13. e. $14.


____ 74. By filling in the blanks in Exhibit 6-12, the marginal cost of the third pizza is shown to be equal to: a. $12. b. $11. c. $13. d. $10. e. $14.


____ 75. Market structure is defined as the: a. number of firms in each industry. b. ease of entry into and exit from the market. c. similarity of the product sold. d. all of the above.


____ 76. Perfectly competitive markets are characterized by: a. firms selling a homogeneous product. b. very strong barriers to entry and exit. c. a small number of very large producers. d. all of the above.


____ 77. Because a competitive firm is a price taker, it faces a demand curve that is: a. perfectly elastic. b. perfectly inelastic. c. relatively elastic. d. relatively inelastic.


____ 78. A firm operating in a perfectly competitive market is a price taker because: a. setting a price higher than the going price results in zero sales. b. no firm has a significant market share. c. no firm's product is perceived as different. d. all of the above.


____ 79. Under perfect competition, a firm is a price taker because: a. each firm's product is perceived as different. b. setting a price higher than the going price results in profits. c. setting a price higher than the going price results in zero sales. d. each firm has a significant market share.


____ 80. The point of maximum profit for a business firm is where: a. MR = AR. b. P = AC. c. TR = TC. d. TR = MR. e. MR = MC.


____ 81. If a firm decreases output when MR > MC, then: a. profit will decrease. b. profit will equal zero. c. profit will increase. d. the firm is minimizing losses. e. profit will remain the same.


____ 82. If a firm increases output when MR < MC, then: a. profit will equal zero. b. profit will decrease. c. profit will remain the same. d. profit will increase. e. the firm is minimizing losses.


____ 83. If a business firm is not operating at the point where MR = MC, then: a. it is not earning the maximum potential profit. b. it should shut down. c. it will incur losses. d. it cannot be earning a profit. e. its profit is zero.


____ 84. If, at the point where MR = MC, the firm incurs losses, in the short run the firm should: a. increase output. b. decrease output. c. shut down. d. continue at its current output if P > AVC. e. continue at its current output if P > ATC.


Exhibit 7-9 A firm's cost and marginal revenue curves


____ 85. In Exhibit 7-9, product price in this market is fixed at $14. This firm is currently operating where MR = MC.


What do you advise this firm to do? a. This firm could increase profits by decreasing output. b. This firm should continue to operate at its current output. c. This firm could increase profits by increasing output. d. This firm should decrease price. e. This firm should shut down.


____ 86. In Exhibit 7-9, product price in this market is fixed at $7. This firm is currently operating where MR = MC. What do you advise this firm to do? a. This firm should shut down. b. This firm should decrease price. c. This firm could increase profits by decreasing output. d. This firm could increase profits by increasing output. e. This firm should continue to operate at its current output.


Exhibit 7-10 Price and cost data for a firm


Q P AVC ATC MC 0 $12 − − − 1 12 3 5 5 2 12 5 6 7 3 12 7.3 8 12 4 12 9.5 10 16


____ 87. In Exhibit 7-10, following the rule regarding MR and MC, the most profitable output level is:


a. 0. b. 1. c. 2. d. 3. e. 4.


____ 88. In Exhibit 7-10, the maximum possible total profit is: a. $24. b. $36. c. $12. d. $20. e. $8.


____ 89. In Exhibit 7-10, MR is the same as which column? a. ATC. b. MC. c. Q. d. P. e. AVC.


Exhibit 7-11 A firm's cost and marginal revenue curves


____ 90. In Exhibit 7-11, the profit-maximizing output level at the price of $8 is: a. 0. b. 4. c. 8. d. 7. e. 10.


____ 91. In Exhibit 7-11, when the price is $5, the firm: a. is breaking even. b. should produce output equal to 7. c. is making an economic profit of $21. d. should produce output equal to 10. e. should shut down.


____ 92. In Exhibit 7-11, when the price is $2, the profit-maximizing (or loss-minimizing) firm: a. should try to produce more output. b. has total revenue equal to $20. c. should produce output equal to 4. d. should shut down and produce zero. e. is making an economic profit of $8.


____ 93. In Exhibit 7-11, when the price rises from $5 to $8, the profit-maximizing (or loss-minimizing) firm goes from making a: a. loss to making a smaller loss. b. loss to making a larger loss. c. profit to making a loss. d. profit to making a larger profit. e. loss to making a profit.


Exhibit 7-12 Marginal revenue and cost per unit curves


____ 94. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, suppose the firm's price is OB. The firm's total economic profit at this price is


equal to the area of: a. AEXD. b. zero.


c. CGHD. d. BFHD. e. CJID.


____ 95. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, the price that will yield zero economic profit is: a. OA. b. OC. c. OB. d. OD.


____ 96. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, the firm will not produce in the short-run if the price is below: a. OD. b. OA. c. OC. d. OB.


____ 97. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, if the price is OD, a perfectly competitive firm maximizes profit at which point on its marginal cost curve? a. F. b. E. c. I. d. Between E and I.


____ 98. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, if the price is OB, the firm's total cost of producing at its most profitable level of output is: a. XL. b. YF. c. OYFB. d. OXEA.


____ 99. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, if the price is OD, the firm's total revenue at its most profitable level of output is: a. OXLD. b. OYFB. c. OZID. d. OYHD.


____ 100. If price is equal to OD for the firm shown in Exhibit 7-12, total profit is maximized when: a. output is Y. b. output is X. c. output is greater than Z. d. output is Z.


____ 101. The firm shown in Exhibit 7-12 will: a. not produce below a price of OA. b. be a price taker. c. produce where marginal cost equals marginal revenue. d. all of the above.


____ 102. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, the firm's supply curve is the: a. entire marginal cost curve. b. rising part of marginal cost beginning at E. c. rising part of marginal cost beginning at F. d. entire marginal revenue curve.


____ 103. As shown in Exhibit 7-12, the firm will shut down in the short-run at a price below: a. OA. b. OB. c. OC. d. OD.


Exhibit 7-15 Short-run cost curves for E-Z Care lawn mowing company


____ 104. In Exhibit 7-15, if the market price of mowing lawns is $16 per lawn, then E-Z-Care will earn the biggest


profit by mowing: a. 7 lawns per day. b. 8 lawns per day. c. 5 lawns per day. d. as many lawns per day as is physically possible.


____ 105. In Exhibit 7-15, what market price would cause E-Z-Care to just beak even? a. $8 per lawn. b. $6 per lawn. c. $12 per lawn. d. $16 per lawn.


____ 106. In Exhibit 7-15, suppose the market price of mowing lawns falls to $10 per lawn. In this situation, E-Z-Care will: a. earn a normal profit. b. shut down its operations, at least in the short run. c. continue to mow lawns despite its economic losses. d. permanently exit the industry.


Exhibit 7-16 Short-run cost curves for a competitive firm


____ 107. In Exhibit 7-16, suppose the firm faces a price of $80 per unit. How much should the firm produce to earn the


largest possible profit? a. 6 units per hour. b. 2 units per hour. c. 5 units per hour. d. 4 units per hour.


____ 108. In Exhibit 7-16, the firm should shut down in the short run if the market price of its product falls below: a. $30 per unit. b. $80 per unit. c. $50 per unit. d. $20 per unit.


____ 109. In Exhibit 7-16, if the market price of its product is $50 per unit, then the firm will: a. earn a positive economic profit. b. break even. c. shut down. d. exit the industry.


Exhibit 7-17 Marginal revenue and cost per unit curves


____ 110. As shown in Exhibit 7-17, if the product price is either $10, $15, $20, or $40, the firm's economic profit is


maximum at an output of: a. 40 units per day. b. 60 units per day. c. 80 units per day. d. 20 units per day.


____ 111. In Exhibit 7-17, if the price of the firm's product is $20 per unit, the firm will produce: a. 20 units per day. b. 40 units per day. c. 80 units per day. d. 60 units per day.


____ 112. As shown in Exhibit 7-17, the price at which the firm earns zero economic profit in the short-run is: a. $15 per unit. b. $20 per unit. c. more than $20 per unit. d. $10 per unit. e. $40 per unit.


____ 113. If the price of the firm's product in Exhibit 7-17 is $15 per unit, the firm should: a. continue to operate because it is earning a positive economic profit. b. stay in operation for the time being even though it is making a pure economic loss. c. shut down temporarily. d. shut down permanently.


____ 114. As shown in Exhibit 7-17, the firm will produce in the short run if the price is at least equal to: a. $40 per unit. b. $15 per unit. c. $30 per unit. d. $20 per unit. e. $10 per unit.


____ 115. As shown in Exhibit 7-17, the short-run supply curve for the firm corresponds to which segment of its marginal cost curve? a. C and all points above. b. B and all points above. c. A and all points above. d. A to C only. e. B to D only.


____ 116. A monopoly is: a. the only seller of a good for which there are no good substitutes in a market with high


barriers to entry. b. the only buyer of a unique raw material. c. the producer of a product subsidized by the government. d. a seller of a highly advertised and differentiated product in a market with low barriers to


entry in the long run.


____ 117. The demand curve any monopolist uses in making output decisions is: a. horizontal, because there are no close substitutes for its product. b. perfectly inelastic. c. the same as the market demand curve. d. the same as the demand curve facing a perfectly competitive firm. e. vertical, because there are no close substitutes for its product.


____ 118. The demand curve for a monopolist is: a. the demand curve for the industry. b. the sum of the demand curves of the perfectly competitive firms in the industry. c. below the marginal revenue curve. d. less than the market demand curve. e. nonexistent.


____ 119. For a monopolist: a. price is above marginal revenue. b. marginal revenue equals zero. c. marginal cost equals zero. d. average total cost equals marginal cost. e. price equals average total cost.


Exhibit 8-3 Demand and cost curves for GeneTech, a monopolist with a patented vaccine


____ 120. In Exhibit 8-3, how much vaccine should GeneTech produce to maximize its profit?


a. 400 doses per hour. b. Between 400 and 500 doses per hour. c. 500 doses per hour. d. 300 doses per hour.


____ 121. As shown in Exhibit 8-3, in order to maximize its profit, what price should GeneTech charge for its vaccine? a. $35 per dose b. $25 per dose. c. $50 per dose. d. $20 per dose.


____ 122. In Exhibit 8-3, what is the maximum hourly profit that GeneTech can earn from its vaccine? a. $10,500. b. $4,500. c. $3,000. d. $1,500.


Exhibit 8-4 Demand and cost curves for a monopolist


____ 123. As shown in Exhibit 8-4, in order to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss), how much output should the


monopoly produce? a. 6 units per hour. b. 2 units per hour. c. 8 units per hour. d. 4 units per hour.


____ 124. As shown in Exhibit 8-4, in order to maximize its profit (or minimize its loss), what price should the monopoly charge for its product? a. $90 per unit. b. $60 per unit. c. $120 per unit. d. $150 per unit.


Exhibit 8-6 Monopoly


____ 125. The maximum possible total monopoly profit in Exhibit 8-6 is:


a. $12. b. $60. c. $18. d. $24. e. $36.


____ 126. When the monopolist is maximizing total profit in Exhibit 8-6, the average total cost of producing that output level is: a. $4. b. $7. c. $10. d. $6. e. $8.


____ 127. The goal of any monopolist is to maximize: a. consumer welfare. b. normal profits. c. price. d. economic profits. e. output.


Exhibit 8-8 Profit maximizing for a monopolist


____ 128. As shown in Exhibit 8-8, the profit-maximizing price for the monopolist is:


a. OP1. b. OP2. c. OP3. d. OP4. e. OP5.


____ 129. As shown in Exhibit 8-8, the monopolist's total cost is which of the following areas? a. P1AEP5. b. P4DEP5. c. P3CDP5. d. P2BDP4. e. None of the above.


____ 130. The profit-maximizing output for the monopolist in Exhibit 8-8 is: a. zero. b. OQ1. c. OQ2 d. OQ3.


____ 131. As shown in Exhibit 8-8, if the monopolist produces the profit-maximizing output, total revenue is the rectangular area: a. OQ2DP4. b. OQ2BP2. c. OQ3CP3. d. OQAP1.


Exhibit 8-9 A monopolist


____ 132. In Exhibit 8-9, the profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing output for the monopolist is:


a. 600 units per day. b. 400 units per day. c. 300 units per day. d. 200 units per day. e. 500 units per day.


____ 133. In Exhibit 8-9, at the profit-maximizing or loss-minimizing output, the monopolist's total economic profit is: a. minimum. b. positive. c. negative. d. zero.


____ 134. In Exhibit 8-9, the monopolist would charge which of the following prices to maximize profit or minimize its loss? a. $70. b. $40. c. $60. d. $20. e. $100.


____ 135. Price discrimination occurs when: a. a seller charges different prices to consumers, discriminating by race or gender of the


consumer. b. firms maximize their profit by setting price equal to marginal cost. c. a seller charges the same price to consumers of a different product or service. d. a seller charges different prices to different consumers of the same product or service.


____ 136. Firms in a monopolistically competitive industry produce: a. homogeneous goods and services. b. consumption goods only. c. differentiated products. d. competitive goods only.


____ 137. Which of the following is a characteristic of the monopolistic competition market structure? a. Few firms and a homogeneous product. b. Few firms and similar products. c. Few firms and differentiated products. d. Many firms and a homogeneous product. e. Many firms and differentiated products.


Exhibit 9-3 A monopolistic competitive firm in the long run


____ 138. As presented in Exhibit 9-3, the long-run profit-maximizing output for the monopolistic competitive firm is:


a. 400 units per week. b. 800 units per week. c. 200 units per week. d. 600 units per week. e. zero units per week.


____ 139. To maximize long-run profits, the monopolistically competitive firm shown in Exhibit 9-3 will charge a price per unit of: a. $30. b. $40. c. $10 d. $20. e. zero.


____ 140. In an oligopoly industry, price: a. will be lower than the competitive price, due to cost savings. b. will exceed the monopoly price, due to the destructiveness of competitive forces. c. cannot be predicted exactly, because it is likely to lie between the competitive and


monopoly prices. d. none of the above.


____ 141. A major characteristic of the theory of oligopoly is that: a. there are no real-world examples. b. in reality few oligopolies survive more than 10 years. c. the reactions of each firm depends on how the firm believes rivals will react. d. none of the above.


____ 142. The automobile, steel, and oil markets are all examples of: a. monopolies. b. oligopolies. c. perfectly competitive markets. d. monopolistically competitive markets.


____ 143. What is the key feature shared by all oligopoly markets? a. Product differentiation. b. A large number of sellers. c. Mutual interdependence. d. Easy entry and exit.


____ 144. When Pepsi is considering a price hike, it needs to consider how Coke may react. This situation is called: a. mutual interdependence. b. monopolistic competition. c. collusion. d. price leadership.


____ 145. Which of the following is a characteristic of an oligopoly? a. Independent pricing decisions. b. Lack of control over prices. c. Mutual interdependence in pricing decisions. d. All of the above are true.


____ 146. Cartel members have an incentive to cheat on the cartel because: a. each member's output quota is too high. b. the industry profit would be higher under competitive conditions. c. the cartel does not maximize profits. d. each member's MR is not equal to the cartel's MC. e. the cartel price is the competitive price.


____ 147. A balanced budget is present when: a. government revenues equal government expenditures. b. the actual level of aggregate spending equals the planned level of spending. c. public sector spending equals private sector spending. d. the economy is at full employment.


____ 148. Changes in government spending and/or taxes as the result of legislation, is called: a. discretionary fiscal policy. b. balanced budget operations. c. open market operations of the Federal Reserve. d. discretionary monetary policy.


____ 149. The Keynesian analysis of fiscal policy argues that: a. the federal budget should be balanced annually except during war. b. fiscal policy should generally be expansionary except during periods of economic


recession. c. the federal budget should be used to maintain aggregate demand at a level consistent with


full employment. d. fiscal policy should generally be restrictive except during inflationary booms.


____ 150. Expansionary fiscal policy consists of: a. raising the minimum wage. b. increasing government spending. c. increasing payroll taxes to finance health care. d. decreasing government spending.


____ 151. The government is pursuing an expansionary policy if it: a. increases its spending or increases its tax revenues. b. increases its spending and/or reduces its tax revenues. c. decreases its spending or reduces its tax revenues. d. decreases its spending and increases its tax revenues.


____ 152. The ratio of the change in GDP to an initial change in aggregate spending is the: a. marginal propensity to consume. b. permanent income rate. c. spending multiplier. d. marginal expenditure rate.


____ 153. A decrease in real GDP would affect the U.S. economy by: a. cutting government expenditures and raising tax revenues. b. cutting tax revenues and raising government expenditures. c. cutting both government expenditures and tax revenues. d. raising both tax revenues and government expenditures.


____ 154. In the U.S. economy, the effect on federal tax revenues and spending of an increase in the unemployment rate is to: a. cut tax revenues and raise expenditures. b. cut both expenditures and tax revenues. c. raise both tax revenues and expenditures. d. cut expenditures and raise tax revenues.


____ 155. Which of the following is the best example of an automatic stabilizer? a. Welfare payments. b. Highway construction. c. Foreign aid d. Defense spending.


____ 156. The unemployment compensation program: a. makes recessions more severe and inflationary episodes less severe. b. makes recessions less severe and inflationary episodes more severe. c. makes recession less severe. d. makes recessions more severe. e. has no effect on the severity of recessions and inflationary episodes.


____ 157. Supply-side economics calls for: a. regulatory reforms to increase productivity. b. lower taxes on businesses and individuals. c. government subsidies to promote technological advance. d. All of the above.


____ 158. Supply-side economists: a. disagreed with economist Arthur Laffer's views on taxes. b. saw influence beyond in both the Bush and Clinton administrations. c. believe that government regulations do not reduce productivity and undermine industrial


efficiency. d. were influential in President Reagan's decision to change the tax structure.


____ 159. According to the Laffer curve, the federal tax rate affects: a. incentive to work. b. tax revenue. c. investment. d. savings. e. All of the above.


____ 160. A decrease in the interest rate, other things being equal, causes a (an): a. leftward shift of the demand curve for money. b. upward movement along the demand curve for money. c. rightward shift of the demand curve for money. d. downward movement along the demand curve for money.


____ 161. The three functions of money are medium of exchange, a. medium of value, and store of value. b. standard of value, and store of value c. measure of value, and deferred value. d. measure of value, and standard of value. e. measure of value, and store of value.


____ 162. People react to an excess supply of money by: a. buying bonds, thus driving up the interest rate. b. selling bonds, thus driving up the interest rate. c. selling bonds, thus driving down the interest rate. d. buying bonds, thus driving down the interest rate.


____ 163. When the Fed increases the money supply, interest rates: a. fall and then rise. b. rise and then fall. c. fall. d. rise. e. are unaffected.


____ 164. An increase in the supply of money will: a. lead to a higher rate of unemployment. b. increase only the general level of prices. c. reduce the rate of interest and, thereby, trigger an increase in current spending by


households and businesses. d. reduce aggregate demand and real output.


____ 165. The equation of exchange states: a. MP = V/Q. b. V = M/PQ. c. MP = VQ. d. MV = PQ.


____ 166. Classical economists believe that: a. the quantity of money explains prices.. b. velocity is not constant. c. changes in the money supply affect real GDP. d. the money supply affects velocity.


____ 167. Classical economists traditionally believed that: a. the transactions demand for money influences the velocity of money. b. a change in the money supply can affect real GDP. c. the economy does not always operate at full employment. d. there are three motives for demanding money. e. the velocity of money is constant.


____ 168. Classical economists believe that an increase in the money supply will lead to: a. only c and d. b. all of the following. c. an increase in the price level. d. an increase in nominal GDP. e. an increase in real GDP.


____ 169. The major assets and liabilities of a bank are: a. checkable deposits and gold, respectively. b. total reserves and checkable deposits, respectively. c. total reserves and excess reserves, respectively. d. checkable deposits and total reserves, respectively. e. checkable deposits and excess reserves, respectively.


____ 170. The amount of assets that a bank must hold at all times is determined by the: a. required reserve ratio. b. fractional reserve requirement. c. actual reserve requirement. d. excess reserve requirement. e. banks' actual reserves.


____ 171. Which of the following is a bank liability? a. Required reserves. b. Loans. c. Actual reserves. d. Excess reserves. e. Checkable deposits.


____ 172. Decisions regarding purchases and sales of government securities by the Fed are made by the: a. Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC). b. Discount Committee (DC). c. Federal Deposit Insurance Commission (FDIC). d. Federal Funds Committee (FFC).


____ 173. When the Fed lowers the discount rate, it: a. increases the amount of excess reserves that banks hold, discouraging them from making


loans to the general public. b. decreases the amount of excess reserves that banks hold, discouraging them from making


loans to the general public. c. increases the amount of excess reserves that banks hold, encouraging them to make loans


to the general public. d. lowers the cost of borrowing from the Fed, encouraging banks to make loans to the


general public. e. raises the cost of borrowing from the Fed, discouraging banks from making loans to the


general public.


____ 174. When the discount rates fall, the cost: a. of loans to bankers' best customers goes down. b. of loans between banks falls. c. to savings and loans of borrowing money from the public falls. d. to banks of borrowing from the Fed falls. e. of international loans falls.


____ 175. The federal funds rate is the interest rate charged by: a. the federal government on loans to member banks. b. the Fed for overnight loans. c. the Fed for borrowed reserves. d. banks for loans to other banks.


____ 176. Gross domestic product is equal to the market value of all final goods and services: a. produced domestically during a period minus the depreciation of productive assets. b. produced by the citizens of a nation during a period. c. exchanged during a period. d. produced domestically during a period.


____ 177. Gross domestic product (GDP) includes: a. only final goods and services. b. used goods sold in the current time period. c. intermediate as well as final goods. d. foreign goods as well as domestically produced goods.


____ 178. Which of the following expenditures would be included in GDP for this year? a. The purchase of a used car. b. The purchase of a new tire by General Motors for a new car. c. The purchase of a new car. d. All of the above would be included.


____ 179. Gross private domestic investment or simply business investment spending (I): a. includes all capital in the United States. b. excludes all investment in the United States by foreign firms. c. includes business expenditures on new factories, tools, and machinery. d. includes net additions to the capital stock plus all new corporate stocks and bonds.


____ 180. Net exports: a. will increase if exports of goods decline. b. include budgetary outlays of the federal government. c. will increase if imports of goods rise. d. in our GDP accounts permit estimation of foreign ownership of American businesses. e. is the net effect of the foreign trade sector on GDP.


____ 181. Consumption spending includes: a. durable goods, nondurable goods, and housing. b. durable goods, services, and housing. c. durable goods, nondurable goods, and services. d. nondurable goods, services, and housing. e. durable goods, nondurable goods, and imports.


____ 182. When net exports are negative, a. exports are greater than imports. b. imports are greater than investment. c. depreciation is greater than net investment. d. imports are greater than exports. e. exports are greater than investment.


____ 183. Depreciation or consumption of fixed capital depreciation measures: a. net investment less gross investment. b. capital that is wasted in the production process. c. the decline in the value of inventories caused by inflation. d. the value of existing capital stock used up in the production process. e. the loss of productive ability due to capital intensive production.


____ 184. The largest component of household consumption spending is expenditures on: a. food. b. nondurable goods. c. services. d. durable goods. e. transportation.


____ 185. Stephen Moreno reported to the government interviewer that he worked 40 hours last week as a stocker at a Target department store. He is: a. not a member of the labor force. b. a member of the civilian labor force who is unemployed. c. a member of the civilian labor force who is underemployed. d. a member of the civilian labor force who is employed. e. a discouraged worker who is not a member of the labor force.


____ 186. People who are not currently employed, but say they want a job, are counted as unemployed only if they: a. are between 16 and 65 years of age. b. are willing to accept any offer of employment. c. have previously held a job. d. are willing to accept a reasonable offer. e. are actively seeking employment.


____ 187. The unemployment rate equals the number of persons: a. unemployed divided by the number in the labor force. b. unemployed divided by the population age 16 and over. c. not working divided by the population age 16 and over. d. unemployed divided by the number employed.


____ 188. An individual who is employed part time, but is looking for a full-time job is classified as: a. cyclically unemployed. b. structurally unemployed. c. employed. d. frictionally unemployed.


____ 189. A criticism of the unemployment rate is that: a. discouraged workers are included in the calculation. b. underemployment is measured in the calculation. c. the data includes part-time workers as fully employed. d. all of the above are problems.


____ 190. John Steinbeck's Cannery Row describes a character who takes his own life because of poor job prospects. If he was an unemployed person who gave up looking for work, he would be considered: a. a member of the labor force. b. frictionally unemployed. c. chronically unemployed. d. a discouraged worker.


____ 191. Frictional unemployment refers to: a. people who are out of work and have no job skills. b. people who spend relatively long periods out of work. c. short periods of unemployment needed to match jobs and job seekers. d. unemployment related to the ups and downs of the business cycle.


____ 192. An example of frictional unemployment is a (an): a. textile worker permanently laid off due to jobs lost to imports. b. computer programmer who leaves one job and accepts a new job. c. engineer permanently laid off due to advances in technology. d. fast-food restaurant worker who quits work and attends college.


____ 193. Which of the following people would be classified as fictionally unemployed? a. Elementary school teachers who do not have summer jobs. b. Construction workers who are on temporary layoff. c. Textile workers who lost their jobs because of new foreign competition. d. Computer programmers who lost their jobs because of a recession.


____ 194. If Sam Jackson voluntarily quits one job, possesses marketable skills, and expects to find a new job in a few weeks, then Mr. Jackson is considered: a. cyclically unemployed. b. structurally unemployed. c. unwise to quit his job without already having another one. d. frictionally unemployed. e. seasonally unemployed.


____ 195. When individuals are unemployed because they lack the qualifications to fill available jobs, this is called: a. frictional unemployment. b. cyclical unemployment. c. natural unemployment. d. structural unemployment.


____ 196. Bob is unemployed because his skills have become obsolete due to technological advances. This is ____ unemployment. a. frictional b. abnormal c. cyclical d. structural


____ 197. Juanita earned a B.S. in engineering and went to work for a large defense contractor in a small town in California. When the government cut spending, Juanita and 99 others were laid off. The only other business in the town is growing grapes to be made into raisins, but the growers refuse to hire laid-off engineers, knowing they will leave at the first opportunity. The unemployment Juanita is experiencing is: a. frictional. b. cyclical. c. permanent. d. structural. e. voluntary.


____ 198. The type of unemployment that occurs because of a recession is called: a. seasonal unemployment. b. natural unemployment. c. cyclical unemployment. d. frictional unemployment.


____ 199. Eric lost his job because a recession caused his employer's sales to fall. This is an example of: a. cyclical unemployment. b. structural unemployment. c. involuntary unemployment. d. frictional unemployment.


____ 200. Full employment is the rate of employment that results when: a. cyclical unemployment has reached its maximum. b. everybody who wants a job can find one. c. all the labor resources of the economy are employed full time. d. only frictional and structural unemployment are present.


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