which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of an employee's possible alcoholism?

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which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of an employee's possible alcoholism?

1. ________ plan training activities. a. Managers b. Training specialists c. Corporate teachers d. Job analysts 2. ________ organize the training opportunities for a company. a. EEO representatives b. Trainings specialists c. Change managers d. Communication directors 3. The ________ HR group may provide specialized support for organizational change. a. centers of expertise b. embedded c. corporate d. transactional 4. The proportion of younger workers in the workforce is projected to ________. a. stop growing b. decrease c. decrease at a faster rate d. increase at a slower rate 5. Over the next few years, employers may face a severe labor shortage because ________. a. people are living longer b. there are fewer people entering the job market than there are retiring baby boomers c. one-third of single mothers are not in the labor force d. All of the above. 6. What tactic will employers likely have to take to fill openings left by retiring employees? a. hiring more women b. instituting flexible work hours c. rehiring retirees d. lowering the retirement age

Unit 1 Examination 23

BAM 411 Human Resource Management 7. Strategic human resource management refers to ________. a. planning the balance of internal strengths and weaknesses with external opportunities and threats to maintain competitive advantage b. extending a firm’s sales, ownership, and manufacturing to new markets c. formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviors the company needs to achieve its strategic aims d. emphasizing the knowledge, education, training, skills, and expertise of a firm’s workers 8. Which term refers to letting vendors abroad provide services for a firm? a. offshoring b. application service providers c. data warehousing d. external work systems 9. ________ refers to the tendency of firms to extend their ownership to new markets abroad. a. Trend analysis b. Globalization c. Outsourcing d. Strategic human resources 10. Which organization provides professional certification for human resource managers? a. Association of Business Administration b. Academy of HR Partners c. Academy of Management d. Society for Human Resource Management 11. Which of the following is an example of HR management’s changing role? a. HR managers must be individually centered so as to ensure that there will be no favoritism. b. HR managers must represent the organization even when they are off the clock.

c. HR managers must measurably improve organizational performance. d. None of the above. 12. Which of the following is not a factor changing the environment of HRM? a. economic trends b. demographic trends c. “generation Y” d. None of the above.

Unit 1 Examination 24 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 13. All of the following are new HRM skills except: a. improving internal consulting skills. b. improving off shoring skills. c. supplying transactional services while serving more strategic, internal consulting activities. d. All of the above. 14. A ________ is a system that enables employees to manage their own benefits and update their personal information. a. software based system b. company portal c. cybernetic portal d. formulation system 15. Of the ten most serious ethical issues, how many were HR related? a. four b. ten c. six d. seven 16. Which of the following is an issue that HR managers have to deal with today? a. managing ethics b. adding value c. managing employee engagement

d. All of the above. 17. The ________ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution states, “no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of the law.” a. Tenth b. Fifth c. First d. Thirteenth 18. The establishment of the EEOC ________ the ability of the federal government to enforce equal employment laws. a. hampered b. greatly enhanced c. greatly reduced d. truncated

Unit 1 Examination 25 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 19. Jack is a 55-year-old American of Anglo-Saxon descent. What legislation is intended to protect Jack from discrimination? a. Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 b. Equal Pay Act of 1963 c. Executive Order 11246 d. Title VII 20. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act requires that employers accommodate disabled workers except when doing so imposes ________. a. any form of inconvenience b. any objection by the customers c. an undue hardship d. any financial burden 21. What was the name of the landmark case the Supreme Court used to define unfair discrimination? a. Griggs v. Duke Power Company b. Meritor Savings Bank FSB v. Vinson

c. Faragher v. City of Boca Raton d. Roe v. Wade 22. All of the following are ways of proving sexual harassment except: a. visiting the ombudsman. b. hostile working environment. c. quid pro quo. d. b and c only 23. Under the Federal Agency Uniform guidelines, it may be ________ to discriminate against persons even within the 40+ age bracket. a. unlawful b. necessary c. lawful d. b and c only 24. All of the following are useful in minimizing liability for sexual harassment except: a. establishing a management response system. b. taking all complaints about harassment seriously. c. adopting a policy that forgives the first offense. d. issuing a strong policy statement condemning harassment.

Unit 1 Examination 26 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 25. Which of the following is not a guideline arising out of Griggs v. Duke Power? a. job relatedness b. discrimination must have disparate impact only c. discrimination need not be intentional d. burden of proof on employer

1. Information regarding job demands such as finger dexterity or conscientiousness is included in the information about ________ an HR specialist may collect during a job analysis. a. work activities b. performance standards c. machines, tools, equipment, and work aids

d. human behaviors 2. What type of information is contained in the job identification section of a job description? a. job summary b. major functions or activities c. job title d. All of the above. 3. When filling jobs with untrained people, the job specifications may include ________. a. quality of training b. physical traits c. length of previous service d. All of the above. 4. Competency analysis focuses on ________. a. what is accomplished b. what competencies or skills the worker must have to do the work c. where the work is accomplished d. when work is accomplished 5. When planning for employment requirements, what must be forecasted? a. personnel needs b. supply of inside candidates c. both a and b d. None of the above. 6. ________ contain data on employees’ performance records, educational background, and promotion recommendations. a. Trend records b. Qualifications inventories c. Computerized information systems d. Replacement charts

Unit 2 Examination 60 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 7. Who is typically responsible for paying the fees charged by private employment agencies when they place qualified individuals in jobs?

a. the employee b. the employer c. there are no fees d. the state employment commission 8. Which of the following is an advantage of college recruiting? a. access to candidates who are not looking for jobs b. access to a source of management trainees c. schedules for recruitment visits set far ahead of time d. All of the above. 9. One of the biggest challenges facing single parents in the job market is ________. a. getting a sufficient salary b. balancing work and family life c. minimizing the commute to work d. getting access to the Internet to search job sites 10. Which of the following can be an illegal question on an application form under some state laws? a. Questions about experience b. Questions about work stability c. Questions about applicant’s age d. Questions about education 11. Which of the following could be perceived as discriminatory when asked on an employment application form? a. religion b. age c. race d. All of the above. 12. A(n) ________ is a procedure designed to solicit information from a person’s oral responses to oral inquiries. a. interview b. presentation c. invigilation

Unit 2 Examination 61

BAM 411 Human Resource Management d. prospectus 13. What is one of the first things you should NOT do to make reference checking more productive? a. have the candidate sign a release authorizing the background check b. get two forms of identification and make applicants fill out job applications c. use a structured reference checking form d. use references provided by the applicant as a source of other references 14. Which assessment method can be conducted one-on-one or with a panel? a. job knowledge tests b. cognitive ability tests c. structured interviews d. All of the above. 15. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test? a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test b. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the test on different occasions c. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on the same test taken on a different occasion d. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way 16. Which of the following describes using an equivalent-form estimate to assess reliability? a. different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people b. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants’ test scores for test one and test two c. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1

d. administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic, then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together 17. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity? a. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of criterion like job performance b. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test represent the tasks performed on the job c. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation d. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks performed on the

Unit 2 Examination 62 BAM 411 Human Resource Management job 18. A ________ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s potential. a. video-based situational testing b. management assessment center c. work sampling event d. retreat 19. What type of question is the following: “Imagine that you have just been assigned the task of winning the business of our competition’s biggest client. How would you proceed?” a. directive b. puzzle c. behavioral d. situational 20. The third step in the training process is to ________.

a. conduct a needs analysis b. develop the program or course c. design the program content d. train the targeted group of employees 21. Which of the following training methods is the most familiar? a. informal learning b. on-the-job training c. lectures d. apprenticeship training 22. Rebekah was hired soon after graduation and assigned to complete a management trainee program. She will move to various jobs each month for a nine-month period of time. Her employer is utilizing the ________ form of training. a. job rotation b. understudy c. special assignments d. coaching 23. Another term for vestibule training is ________ training. a. cubicle b. apprenticeship c. computer-based d. simulated

Unit 2 Examination 63 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 24. Bobby demonstrates the correct way to do a job. He is using which training technique? a. behavior modeling b. instruction by example c. demonstrational prowess d. None of the above. 25. Any attempt to improve managerial performance by imparting knowledge, changing attitudes, or increasing skills is called ________. a. management development b. on-the-job training

c. diversity training d. performance improvement programs

1. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her performance standards is called ________. a. employee selection b. recruitment c. performance appraisal d. organizational development 2. The “S” in the acronym for SMART goals stands for ________. a. straightforward b. specific c. strategic d. support 3. Who is the primary person responsible for doing the actual appraising of an employee’s performance? a. the EEO contact person b. the company appraiser c. the employee’s direct supervisor d. None of the above. 4. Because in most organizations there is a hierarchy of goals, employee performance standards should ________. a. make sense in terms of the broader organizational goals b. be standard c. be decided by the top executive d. All of the above. 5. Besides the supervisor, which of the following is available to managers as an alternative source of performance appraisal information? a. the employee b. rating committees c. peers d. All of the above.

Unit 3 Examination

86 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 6. Suppose you have five employees to rate. You make a chart of all possible pairs of employees for each trait being evaluated. Then, you indicate the better employee of the pair for each pair. Finally, you add up the number of positives for each employee. In this case, you have used the ________ method of performance appraisal. a. forced distribution b. alternation ranking c. paired comparison d. graphic ranking scale 7. To protect against bias claims when using the forced distribution method, employers should ________. a. train raters to be objective b. appoint a review committee to review any employee’s low ranking c. consider using multiple raters in conjunction with the method d. All of the above. 8. All of the following are advantages of using the critical incident

method for appraising performance except that: a. incidents can be tied to performance goals. b. it does not include a numerical rating. c. it provides examples of good performance. d. it provides examples of poor performance. 9. What is the fourth step in the Management by Objectives Method? a. set the organization’s goals b. set departmental goals c. discuss departmental goals d. define expected results 10. One personality study focused on how individual traits influenced the evaluations that students gave their peers. Raters who scored higher on ________ tended to give their peers lower ratings. a. openness b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. extroversion

Unit 3 Examination 87 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 11. One way of reducing the problems of leniency or strictness in performance appraisals is to ________. a. consider the purpose of the appraisal b. be aware of the problem c. train supervisors to avoid it d. rank employees 12. When an employee’s personal characteristics, such as gender, influence a supervisor’s evaluation of his or her performance, the problem of ________ has occurred. a. stereotyping b. halo affect c. central tendency

d. bias 13. When subordinates provide feedback for supervisors, the comments should be anonymous because identifiable responses tend to result in more ________. a. critical ratings b. inflated ratings c. negative attitudes from managers receiving the feedback d. All of the above. 14. The process through which someone becomes aware of personal skills, interests, knowledge, motivations; acquires information about opportunities; identifies career goals; and establishes action plans to attain those goals is called ________. a. career management b. career development c. career planning d. organizational development 15. Responsibility for career development should always be left to the ________. a. employee b. manager c. career success team d. supervisor 16. What is another term for 360-degree feedback? a. multi-source feedback b. upward feedback c. wheel feedback d. feedback loop

Unit 3 Examination 88 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 17. Direct financial payments include all of the following except: a. insurance b. salaries c. incentives d. wages 18. Which of the following is addressed by the Fair Labor Standards

Act? a. child labor b. minimum wage c. maximum hours d. All of the above. 19. According to the Fair Labor Standards Act, if a worker covered by the act works more than 40 hours, he or she will receive overtime pay at a rate of ________ of normal pay for any hours worked over 40 in a workweek. a. 150% b. 50% c. 125% d. 100% 20. Which of the following occupations is exempt from overtime and minimum pay provisions stated in the Fair Labor Standards Act? a. hourly cashiers b. data entry c. department heads d. none of the above 21. Under which condition is it acceptable for employees of the opposite sex to receive different pay for doing roughly equivalent work? a. it is never acceptable b. when the difference exists because of a merit system c. when the difference exists despite similar responsibility d. when the difference exists despite equal skills 22. The ________ prohibits discriminating against employees who are 40 years of age and older in all aspects of employment, including compensation. a. Civil Rights Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. Equal Pay Act d. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

Unit 3 Examination 89

BAM 411 Human Resource Management 23. The ________ allows a firm to borrow against employee stock held in trust. a. Employer Retirement Income Security Act b. Fair Labor Standards Act c. National Labor Relations Act d. Civil Rights Act 24. A ________ is comprised of jobs of approximately equal difficulty or importance as established by job evaluation. a. class b. pay grade c. benchmark d. pay group 25. Which health benefit listed below is offered by almost all employers? a. wellness program b. chiropractic insurance c. medical care insurance d. mental health insurance

1. The principles of conduct governing an individual or a group are referred to as ________. a. judgments b. ethics c. norms d. laws 2. Procedural justice refers to the ________. a. degree to which managers treat employees with dignity as opposed to abuse or disrespect b. fairness of the process used to arrive at a decision c. manner in which managers conduct their interpersonal dealings with employees d. fairness of a decision’s result 3. The Enron debacle, “It’s not the rules but what employees feel they should do that determines ethical behavior,” is a description of ________.

a. national culture b. organizational culture c. organizational climate d. organizational ethics 4. The CEO of Southwest Airlines can sometimes be seen helping out at a gate, handling luggage, and assisting cabin attendants while in flight. This is an example of ________ to create and sustain the company’s culture. a. organizing ceremonies b. providing physical support c. using signs and symbols d. clarifying expectations 5. All of the following is a step in discipline without punishment except: a. if no further incidents purge the one-day suspension from the file b. contact others involved c. give a paid, one-day “decision-making leave” d. None of the above. 6. The most drastic step a manager can take in response to an employee offense is ________. a. dismissal b. time off without pay c. written warning d. warning documented in employee file

Unit 4 Examination 123 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 7. Which of the basis for dismissal is defined as the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job? a. misconduct b. changed requirements of job c. unsatisfactory performance d. lack of qualifications for job 8. Misconduct, one of the basis for dismissal, is defined as ________. a. an employee’s inability to do the work assigned because the nature of the job has

changed b. an employee’s inability to do the assigned work despite his or her diligence c. the deliberate and willful violation of the employer’s rules and may include stealing and insubordination d. the persistent failure to perform assigned duties or to meet prescribed standards on the job 9. What law requires that employers of 100 or more employees receive 60 days’ notice before closing a facility or starting a layoff of 50 people or more? a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act b. ERISA c. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act d. COBRA 10. The plant closing law requires employers with ________ or more employees to give advance notification prior to closing a facility. a. 150 b. 25 c. 50 d. 100 11. What is the second step in the guidelines for an effective termination interview? a. plan the interview carefully b. get to the point c. describe the situation d. listen 12. The ________ shop form of union security means that the company can hire non-union people, but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time. a. union b. open c. closed d. agency

Unit 4 Examination

124 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 13. In what year was the Wagner Act passed? a. 1886 b. 1935 c. 1947 d. 1932 14. Which law gave employers the right to express their views concerning union organization? a. Gompers Act b. Landrum-Griffin Act c. Taft-Hartley Act d. Norris-LaGuardia Act 15. ________ is an organizing tactic by which full-time undercover union organizers are hired unknowingly by employers in order to sway union elections. a. Union salting b. Infiltration c. Espionage d. Featherbedding 16. All of the following are examples of permissible bargaining items except: a. overtime pay b. use of union label c. indemnity bonds d. cafeteria prices 17. Illegal bargaining items are ________. a. items which must be negotiated according to law b. a part of negotiations through joint agreement of both management and union c. forbidden by law d. All of the above. 18. Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________. a. communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike b. interpreting existing contract terms c. studying the issue in a dispute and making a public recommendation d. assisting the principals in reaching an agreement

Unit 4 Examination 125 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 19. Employers dealing with an unfair labor practice strike can use all of the following responses except: a. shut down the affected area until the strike ends b. hire permanent replacement workers c. contract out work to other operations d. continue operations with supervisors filling in 20. Which of the following is not a basis for reducing and preventing accidents at work? a. reducing unsafe conditions b. training employees c. reducing unsafe acts d. hiring non-accident-prone workers 21. Which of the following is one of the earliest indicators of possible alcoholism in an employee? a. lying b. tardiness c. avoidance of fellow employees d. domestic problems 22. A drug-free workplace program includes how many components? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 5 23. All of the following are symptoms of employees in the middle stage of alcoholism except: a. anxiety b. untrue statements c. frequent absences d. mood swings 24. Which of the following is an external factor that can lead to job stress? a. workaholic personality b. pessimism c. job security

d. locus of control

Unit 4 Examination 126 BAM 411 Human Resource Management 25. Which of the following safety concerns only became a top priority of employers following the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001? a. internet security b. physical asset security c. workplace violence d. employee selection and screening

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